Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? - Religion (11) - Nairaland
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| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by limamintruth: 3:44pm On Mar 15, 2015 |
Empiree: Just like Caliph Uthman & the subsequent seven Readers distorted the Quran right?   Empiree: Lol, lemme indulge you cos I can see this has become a mantra of some sort for you.  The R.S.V preface amongst some others, have indeed critiqued K.J.V as being defective primarily due to the change (since 1611) in English usage. Many forms of word expressions have become archaic/obsolete and no longer understood by the common reader. Thereby posing a great problem, as some of the English words in constant use by K.J.V now convey a different meaning from that which they had in 1611. Some few examples of such archaic expressions in the King James Version are the use of: "wottest" for '"know"; "let" for "restrain" ( II Thess. 2); "conversation" for "conduct"; "take no thought" for "be not anxious" ( Matt. 6); etc. The K.J.V has transcended to such an extent in time wherein 17th century English becomes unintelligible, and a new translation is not only permissible, but even demanded. This was a vital concern of the Reformation & the subsequent revisions. Empiree: Now you are really beginning to sound confused mister  Or else, how would you claim to have a problem with the word 'version' and not have a problem with 'translation'?  It sounds dumb to me really.  In case you dont know, the word "Version" is simply "A particular form of something differing in certain respects(e.g lang., punctuations, expression style e.t.c) from an earlier form or other forms of the same type of thing". Thus, 'version' & 'translation' are two similar words that can be used interchangeably as clearly shown in the Thesaurus dict. below: "translation [ trans- ley -sh uh n, tranz- ] Main Entry: translation Part of Speech: noun Definition: rewording; interpretation Synonyms: adaptation, construction, crib*, decoding, elucidation, explanation, gloss, key, metaphrase, paraphrase, reading, rendering, rendition, rephrasing, restatement, simplification, transcription, transliteration, VERSION" http://www.thesaurus.com/browse/translation So you see, these are synonymous words that are identical; hence, you cant claim to be in love with one and detaste the other.  Empiree: Empiree:. Lol, you are just being unnecessarily adamant @empiree. Everything you pasted above is totally offpoint pls This is what a renown Islamic website states on the issue in question: "There are various versions of the Arabic Quran that are still in print. They differ in many aspects although they convey the same meaning. God has provided us with the tool to verify the correct version and confirm His preservation of the Quran. The Mathematical miracle of the Quran has proved that the Hafs transmission maintained the built-in mathematical structure of the Quran." http://submission.org/verify_are_all_Arabic_versions_of_Quran_the_same.html Many other famous scholars hav also referred to the Hafs, Warsh, e.t.c as Quranic versions too. So i wonder why you are being adamant against the truth. Empiree: Dont tell me you are this desperate in your faultfinding quest?  How on earth does "O.T scriptures" become synonymous to "old covenant"  This are totally two different things; the first refers to the entire books that make up the Old testament, while the latter refers to the 'covenant that existed between God and His people in the time of the ancient Prophets. So while the Old Testament scriptures have & will always remain unchanged, the Old covenant needed to be renewed with the coming of Christ Jesus. If you wish, i can make out time from my tight schedule to acquaint you more on this issue. ................... Also, the two verses you quoted in Isaiah are very clear and precise. The first verse you cited there highlights the titles of christ Jesus, while The second unequivocally states His name. i.e Immanuel Again if you want, i dont mind giving you an illustration using you as example. A name is different from a title e.g your name may be Obafemi, while your title is 'His Excellency'. Understand? Empiree: Sorry i'm not yoruba (neither do i understand or speak the lang.) And i cant spot any blaspemy in the Malachi verse you quoted pls. So if you dont mind, kindly highlight and bring out the blasphemy that you allege lies therein. Peace!  |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by Empiree: 4:32pm On Mar 15, 2015 |
You are still not making any sense. It's waste of time posting link to convince me there are Arabic versions of Quran. That's just theory. Do yourself a favor by presenting two "different Arabic Quran" if you have them. Very simple. If you can not, them shut up forever. When we say different Bible versions, they are quiet obvious as we can easily see them on the shelves. But you only present links (article written by someone) saying whatever about Quran. That proves nothing. Present another Quran if any. Nothing more. Quran is recited and memorized in one Arabic language and version. Dialects may vary from regions to another. There are 114 chapters of the Quran. And thats one vesion. What I need you to prove to me is bring a Quran that has less than 114 chapters, missing verses and let's start from there. But if you can't, then it means you have no idea what you saying all the time. But Bibles have missing chapters, verses etc. As for contradictions in your bible versions, you can twist all you want. Thats whaat churches do to the poor church goers. And no, I wasnt sniffing around to find faults. I usually keep them to myself. Deceive yourself all you want. limamintruth: 2 Likes |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by limamintruth: 9:45pm On Mar 15, 2015 |
Empiree:Goodnight notwitstanding! |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by Nobody: 8:15am On Mar 16, 2015 |
Quote "1. Did Jesus read the bible? provide your proof 2. Was he given the bible or the gospel? Mat 4:23 Jesus went throughout Galilee, teaching in their synagogues, preaching the gospel of the kingdom, and healing every disease and sickness among the people. ‘ Mark 1:14-15 The time is fulfilled, and the kingdom of God is at hand. Repent, and believe in the gospel’" Luke 4:18 The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; 3. Did he read the bible or book of Esaias? Luke 4:16-20 "And he came to Nazareth, where he had been brought up: and, as his custom was, he went into the synagogue on the sabbath day, and stood up for to read. And there was delivered unto him the book of the prophet Esaias .And when he had opened the book, he found the place where it was written, The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised, To preach the acceptable year of the Lord. And he closed the book, and he gave it again to the minister, and sat down. And the eyes of all them that were in the synagogue were fastened on him." Unquote. Of course not. He read the Injeel. 1 Like |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by plainbibletruth: 1:00pm On Mar 16, 2015 |
Abuamam: 3 UNPARALLED UNIQUE THINGS ABOUT JESUS Jesus birth was unique and supernatural: - Sura 3:45 – 47 Jesus performed miracles, signs and wonders: - Sura 3: 49; 5:110 Jesus ascended to heaven, so the end of his life was unique and supernatural: - Sura 3:55 Therefore Christ’s life was unique and supernatural. Jesus died on the cross, so that we might have forgiveness of our sins, and also rose from the grave, and conquered death. Wouldn’t these – his unique and supernatural birth, his unique and supernatural life and his unique and supernatural end of his life – make him the ONLY PERSON who ever lived and had all these UNPARALLELED qualities in these three areas COMBINED and not just in one or two? Do these not make him the MOST UNIQUE and supernatural person that ever lived? Does that not demand an UNEQUALED response to him from you? |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by kay1one2(m): 1:03pm On Mar 16, 2015 |
Question: did mohammed rape a 9yr old?! Yes he did!!! Yes he did!!! |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by Empiree: 9:05pm On Mar 16, 2015 |
limamintruth:You despirate so bad to just copy/paste whatever you want. Anyways, this is typical anti-islamic missionary deceit. Some Anti-Islam missionaries have use the references of a highly reverted commenter of Islam As-Suyuti to claim that Quran is incomplete. This claim like any other claim is totally baseless and absurd. Here is what is quoted It follows that anything that comes only from Kitab al-Masahif must be held in suspension until corroborated by an independent, reliable source or declared authentic by one of the competent authorities, or adduced by them. It is reported from Ismail ibn Ibrahim from Ayyub from Naafi from Ibn Umar who said: "Let none of you say 'I have acquired the whole of the Qur'an'. How does he know what all of it is when much of the Qur'an has disappeared? Rather let him say 'I have acquired what has survived.'" (as-Suyuti, Al-Itqan fii Ulum al-Qur'an, p.524). This reference to the Itqan is untraceable as no edition of it is in less than two volumes to my knowledge. The above refers to a famous saying of Ibn `Umar, once again deceptively/ignorantly mistranslated so as to mislead readers to think it means other than its actual meaning. The words used by Ibn `Umar for the terms given as "acquired," "disappeared," and "what has survived" above were -- I am quoting from memory -- respectively "ahattu" (I have encompassed), "faatahu" (escapes him), and "ma tayassara minhu" (whatever amount of it has been facilitated). The actual meaning of Ibn `Umar's words is: "Let no one say: I have encompassed the whole of the Qur'an [its meanings]. How does he know what all of it is when much of the Qur'an escapes him? Rather, let him say: I have encompassed whatever amount of it has been facilitated [for me to know]." Ibn Umar was famous for his strictness in refraining from interpreting the Qur'an, even criticizing Ibn `Abbas's interpretive zeal in the beginning, then accepting its authority. He was not referring to the collection of the Qur'an! But only to the ethics of the exegete, in the same line as Ibn `Abbas's saying narrated by al-Tabari and cited by al-Suyuti and al-Zarkashi: "There are ambiguous verses in the Qur'an which no one knows besides Allah. Whoever claims that he knows them, is a liar." So, Quran is complete, perfect, error free and this is proven in every way. Now, you can say all you want about Qur'an been partly lost. I only asked for one thing, bring physical evidence not articles. Again, A’isha the favorite wife of the Prophet, says, also according to a tradition recounted by As-Suynti,Let me seal this this off by rephrasing missionaries dilema thus: Question :There were many versions of the Qur’an all of which were burnt by Usman (r.a.) except for one. Therefore is it not true that the present Qur’an is the one compiled by Usman (r.a.) and not the original revelation of God?Answer: One of the most common myths about the Qur’an, is that Usman (r.a.), the third Caliph of Islam authenticated and compiled one Qur’an, from a large set of mutually contradicting copies. The Qur’an, revered as the Word of Allah (swt) by Muslims the world over, is the same Qur’an as the one revealed to Prophet Muhammad (pbuh). It was authenticated and written under his personal supervision. We will examine the roots of the myth which says that Usman (r.a.) had the Qur’an authenticated. Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) himself supervised and authenticated the written texts of the Qur’an Whenever the Prophet received a revelation, he would first memorize it himself and later declare the revelation and instruct his Companions (R.A. – Radhi Allahu Taala Anhu) – May Allah be pleased with him who would also memorize it. The Prophet would immediately ask the scribes to write down the revelation he had received, and he would reconfirm and recheck it himself. Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) was an Ummi who could not read and write. Therefore, after receiving each revelation, he would repeat it to his Companions. They would write down the revelation, and he would recheck by asking them to read what they had written. If there was any mistake, the Prophet would immediately point it out and have it corrected and rechecked. Similarly he would even recheck and authenticate the portions of the Qur’an memorized by the Companions. In this way, the complete Qur’an was written down under the personal supervision of the prophet (pbuh). Order and sequence of Qur’an divinely inspired The complete Qur’an was revealed over a period of 23 years portion by portion, as and when it was required. The Qur’an was not compiled by the Prophet in the chronological order of revelation. The order and sequence of the Qur’an too was Divinely inspired and was instructed to the Prophet by Allah (swt) through archangel Jibraeel. Whenever a revelation was conveyed to his companions, the Prophet would also mention in which surah (chapter) and after which ayat (verse) this new revelation should fit. Every Ramadhaan all the portions of the Qur’an that had been revealed, including the order of the verses, were revised and reconfirmed by the Prophet with archangel Jibraeel. During the last Ramadhaan, before the demise of the Prophet, the Qur’an was rechecked and reconfirmed twice. It is therefore clearly evident that the Qur’an was compiled and authenticated by the Prophet himself during his lifetime, both in the written form as well as in the memory of several of his Companions. Qur’an copied on one common material The complete Qur’an, along with the correct sequence of the verses, was present during the time of the Prophet (pbuh). The verses however, were written on separate pieces, scrapes of leather, thin flat stones, leaflets, palm branches, shoulder blades, etc. After the demise of the prophet, Abu Bakr (r.a.), the first caliph of Islam ordered that the Qur’an be copied from the various different materials on to a common material and place, which was in the shape of sheets. These were tied with strings so that nothing of the compilation was lost. Usman (r.a.) made copies of the Qur’an from the original manuscript Many Companions of the Prophet used to write down the revelation of the Qur’an on their own whenever they heard it from the lips of the Prophet. However what they wrote was not personally verified by the Prophet and thus could contain mistakes. All the verses revealed to the Prophet may not have been heard personally by all the Companions. There were high possibilities of different portions of the Qur’an being missed by different Companions. This gave rise to disputes among Muslims regarding the different contents of the Qur’an during the period of the third Caliph Usman (r.a.). Usman (r.a.) borrowed the original manuscript of the Qur’an, which was authorized by the beloved Prophet (pbuh), from Hafsha (may Allah be pleased with her), the Prophet’s wife. Usman (r.a.) ordered four Companions who were among the scribes who wrote the Qur’an when the Prophet dictated it, led by Zaid bin Thabit (r.a.) to rewrite the script in several perfect copies. These were sent by Usman (r.a.) to the main centers of Muslims. Diacritical marks were added for non-Arabs The original manuscript of the Qur’an does not have the signs indicating the vowels in Arabic script. These vowels are known as tashkil, zabar, zair, paish in Urdu and as fatah, damma and qasra in Arabic. The Arabs did not require the vowel signs and diacritical marks for correct pronunciation of the Qur’an since it was their mother tongue. For Muslims of non-Arab origin, however, it was difficult to recite the Qur’an correctly without the vowels. These marks were introduced into the Quranic script during the time of the fifth ‘Umayyad’ Caliph, Malik-ar-Marwan (66-86 Hijri/685-705 C.E.) and during the governorship of Al-Hajaj in Iraq. Some people argue that the present copy of the Qur’an that we have along with the vowels and the diacritical marks is not the same original Qur’an that was present at the Prophet’s time. But they fail to realize that the word ‘Qur’an’ means a recitation. Therefore, the preservation of the recitation of the Qur’an is important, irrespective of whether the script is different or whether it contains vowels. If the pronunciation and the Arabic is the same, naturally, the meaning remains the same too. Allah Himself has promised to guard the Qur’an Allah has promised in the Qur’an : "We have, without doubt, sent down the Message; and We will assuredly Guard.it.(from.corruption).".[Al-Qur’an 15:9] So if you have another Qur'an different from the one version we have in Arabic, bring it forward and let's contest. 5 Likes 1 Share |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by Empiree: 10:00pm On Mar 16, 2015 |
limamintruth:Nonsense!!! A typical example lies thus:What else is new?. Evangelists! I hail thee You people point to two references from the Quran, 6:14 and 6:161-163, and claim these references show Muhammad as the first Muslim and then turn your attention to another verse of the Quran (7;143) concerning Moses being the first of the believers. Just to further your agenda you may also highlight other Quranic references indicating there were Muslims before Muhammed (pbuh) and Moses namely the first man Adam (Sura 2:30, 34-35, 37) and Abraham as well as other Prophets (Sura 4:163, S. 6:84) as believers. However you and other critics mainly use the Quranic verse about Moses (7:143) and try to put it along side the two concerning Muhammed (6:14 and 6:163) and you then allege contradiction/error. Here Is The Refutation Quite simply, the Quran does not claim Muhammed nor Moses to be the first ever Muslim. The critic imposes a faulty understanding on the Quranic verses and alleges a contradiction when there is no contradiction/error. Despite this it is still thorough and beneficial to offer explanations in order to clear any confusion as well as help highlight the errors of the critics in the hope they realise their mistakes and abjure themselves and eventually become amongst the guided ones, Insha’Allah Now lt's keep it simple. I feel it is logical to begin this simple refutation with analyzing the reference concerning Moses and then build upon this in a methodical fashion so that you and fellow christian readers can follow with ease. Did the Quran claim Moses to be the first ever believer? 7:143 sees Moses saying he is the first of the believers. However, we do see that this is true as he (Moses) was the first believer amongst his own people. Here is the link http://quran.com/7/143 Moses does not say he is the first believer ‘ever’. He merely claims he is the first of the believers and knowing the context one understands he is not claiming to be the first ever believer from humankind but the first amongst his people to believe, this is apparent as it is a relative term to the “believers” and situational-context tells us that the believers at the time of Moses were essentially the Children of Israel and thus we realise that Moses is referring to himself as the first to believe amongst the Children of Israel. Critic like yourself fail to mention this and try to present this verse as meaning Moses is the first ever to believe amongst humanity, this is unfair and misleading on the part of the critic especially considering the word “ever” is not in the verse. There is further clarification of the Arabic phrase of the Quran ascribed to Moses (“awwalu almumineena”= “first of the believers”) as there is another reference in the Quran (26:51) where this term comes up and thus explaining the meaning of Moses’ statement of being the “first of the believers (“awwalu almumineena”). So basic principle of Tafsir (explaining the Quran) is used by explaining a verse of the Quran (the verse concerning Moses, 7:143) by using another part of the Quran (26:51). So what do we learn about the statement of Moses in 7:143 by looking at Q26:51?. http://quran.com/26/51 26:51. “Verily! We really hope that our Lord will forgive us our sins, as we are the first of the believers [in Mûsa (Moses) and in the Monotheism which he has brought from Allâh].” I dont need to go into the context of the verse, that may be too inundated. According to several passages in the Quran, MUHAMMED was the first Muslim:It is not up for debate whether Muhammad (pbuh) was the first Muslim or not. Quite simply he was the first Muslim in the sense that Muhammad was the first Muslim (i.e. who has submitted to God) amongst his own people (the Quraish) at that particular phase in history. This is completely correct. Hence there is no contradiction as Adam was the first Muslim ever while Muhammad was the first Muslim amongst his own people. There are two Quranic references (6:14 and 6:162-163) the critics bring up, so it is appropriate to analyse the two references. The first of the Quranic references the critics cite (6:14) shows that Allah instructs Muhammed to “say” (Qul): “Verily, I am commanded to be the first of those who submit themselves to Allâh (as Muslims).”: [b]Qur'an 6:14. Say (O Muhammad SAW): “Shall I take as a Walî (helper, protector, etc.) any other than Allâh, the Creator of the heavens and the earth? And it is He Who feeds but is not fed.” Say: “Verily, I am commanded to be the first of those who submit themselves to Allâh (as Muslims).” And be not you (O Muhammad SAW) of the Mushrikûn [polytheists, pagans, idolaters and disbelievers in the Oneness of Allâh].[/b]http://quran.com/6/14 Also note the same applies to the second Quranic reference (6:162-163) in that it also begins with Qul (say) and Mohammed is instructed to say: “… I am the first of the Muslims”: Here is the link http://quran.com/6/162-163 There isnt any contradictions. It's very simple. I could have simply said Adam was the first muslim ever on earth. Abraham made Islam permanent. Moses was also the first muslim in his time. Jesus was the first muslim in his time. And Muhammad perfected islam and became the first muslim among his people until end of time. Simple isn't without lengthy post. May Allah's blessings and peace be upon them all. Amin 2 Likes 1 Share |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by kay1one2(m): 10:30pm On Mar 16, 2015 |
Empiree: Idol worshipper! Follower of occultic religion! |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by malvisguy212: 10:36pm On Mar 16, 2015 |
Empiree:if Moses was the first believer among his people, what about his mother? Is she a sinner, bible say "by FAITH she hide Moses from Pharaoh" what faith is she practising? Even the Arab christians of nijran keep on questioning muhammed revelation because his message was different from the rest prophet. |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by Rilwayne001: 10:45pm On Mar 16, 2015 |
kay1one2: 1 Like |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by Empiree: 11:23pm On Mar 16, 2015 |
limamintruth [size=3pt]This is however contradicted by both the Quran and various Islamic traditions which refer to the presence of true believers both before and during Muhammad’s alleged "call" to prophethood.Reference above^^^^ The first Muslim on earth was Adam (peace be upon him) For instance:This is why Qur'an is unique. It's commited to memory by millions of muslims worldwide. (2) "The revision of a roll must be made within 30 days after the work was finished; otherwise it was worthless. One mistake on a sheet condemned the sheet; if three mistakes were found on any page, the entire manuscript was condemned."Good enough. Honestly, you have no real argument against me. If you had original Aramaic bible which Jesus(peace be upon him) spoke would have helped you. That's why you dont have it written on the side like we do to our Qur'an. Some english versions have Arabic Qur'an on the side for cross references. You cant do that. That's why I just have to dismiss your case here. Sorry buddy. [s]These very strict rules of transcription show how precious the Jews had regarded the inspired words of God, and how precise their copying of these inspired words must have been. Such strict practices in writing "give us strong encouragement that we indeed possess authentic Old Testament scripture just like the New Testament; being the same one which was originally given by inspiration of God." Now to your question(s), i want you to note that the Word of God in the Holy Bible is forever infallible and inerrant.The Church today has a 100% Perfect Bible without any iota of error of contradiction. coolOh really? Check this out too. On the account of Jesus, you christians believe his 'death' on the cross is a source of your salvation. At the same time, your bible said curse is the one that is hanged. Now here are contradictions: Galatians 3:13 Good News Translation (GNT) But by becoming a curse for us Christ has redeemed us from the curse that the Law brings; for the scripture says, “Anyone who is hanged on a tree is under God's curse.” ^this verse is saying Jesus was cursed according to your Bible. Now here is the opposite.... 1 Corinthians 12:3Good News Translation (GNT) I want you to know that no one who is led by God's Spirit can say “A curse on Jesus!” and no one can confess “Jesus is Lord,” without being guided by the Holy Spirit. Oya, starting fooling me again Now on sin, there is nothing in the bible to suggest Jesus wanted to die for your sins. According to Christians, "blood of Jesus" was necessary for their salvation. This is contrary to Jesus's teachings. Why can't God just forgive without shedding human blood. This is what Jesus said...he thought people how to pray for forgiveness. Matthew 6:13-14Good News Translation (GNT) Do not bring us to hard testing, but keep us safe from the Evil One.’ “If you forgive others the wrongs they have done to you, your Father in heaven will also forgive you." Matthew 6:12New Life Version (NLV) Forgive us our sins as we forgive those who sin against us. Another proof is in the Bible that you dont need blood to be shed to have salvation. Proof of this can be found where someone asked Jesus what he can do to have eternal life. The passage is located in: Luke 10:25-27Good News Translation (GNT) A teacher of the Law came up and tried to trap Jesus. “Teacher,” he asked, “what must I do to receive eternal life?” Jesus answered him, “What do the Scriptures say? How do you interpret them?” The man answered, [size=14pt]“‘Love the Lord your God with all your heart, with all your soul, with all your strength, and with all your mind’; and ‘Love your neighbor as you love yourself.’”[/size] Then, the man said: “You are right,” Jesus replied; [size=15pt]“do this and you will live.”[/size] Luke 10:28-29 Very simple. What do you need "blood of Jesus" for? Then, this mumbo jumbo came up from nowhere: Matthew 26:28Good News Translation (GNT) “this is my blood, which seals God's covenant, my blood poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins." Hebrews 9:22Good News Translation (GNT) Indeed, according to the Law almost everything is purified by blood, and sins are forgiven only if blood is poured out. This is crazy^ no doubt is the reason christian nations invading countries and spilling blood all over the world. The above contradict. Bible account on how Judas died is as rightly recorded in the book of Mathew, while Apostle Peter's brief analogy on Judas in verses 18 & 19 of Acts 1 is solely stated figuratively, hence shouldnt be interpreted literarily.This is crazy interpretation that doesnt relate at all. First all, there isnt anything like parable. You simply suggest here that the verse speaks in parables. But your Bible says there is nothing like parable in it. 2 Peter 1:20New American Bible (Revised Edition) (NABRE) [size=14pt]Know this first of all, that there is no prophecy of scripture that is a matter of personal interpretation[/size] In the foortnotes of this verse in the same Bible it reads: Often cited, along with 2 Tm 3:16, on the “inspiration” of scripture or against private interpretation, these verses in context are directed against the false teachers of 2 Pt 2 and clever tales (2 Pt 1:16 -2 pt 1:20). The prophetic word in scripture comes admittedly through human beings (2 Pt 1:21), but moved by the holy Spirit, not from their own interpretation, and is a matter of what the author and Spirit intended, not the personal interpretation of false teachers. Instead of under the influence of God, some manuscripts read “holy ones of God.” Therefore, Acts 1:18 never mentioned or inferred that Judas fell from any hill/rock/mountain as you wrongly assume. Why not even reason it this way if really you are smart:Now compare your unfounded interpretation with others that i researched on this subject. A possible reconstruction would be this: Judas hanged himself on a tree on the edge of a precipice that overlooked the valley of Hinnom. After he hung there for some time, the limb of the tree snapped or the rope gave way and Judas fell down the ledge, mangling his body in the process. The fall could have been before or after death as either would fit this explanation. This possibility is entirely natural when the terrain of the valley ofHinnom is examined.http://www.josh.org/resources/study-research/answers-to-skeptics-questions/are-the-two-accounts-of-the-death-of-judas-contradictory/ This is contrary to your interpretation that "bursting open" means confessing his sin. This article here contradicts yours: https://carm.org/bible-difficulties/matthew-mark/how-did-judas-die-hanging-or-falling-down Cc: allnaijablogger ,this is where you need to come for normal intelligent and scholarly debate. Not bashing unnecessarily like others. We all can learn here. There is no fight on this thread. Thanks [size=1pt]Ubenedictus[/size] 2 Likes 1 Share |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by Empiree: 12:09am On Mar 17, 2015 |
malvisguy212:Mashallah!!! Good question. Good observation. Qur'an also suggests Musa (Moses)'s mother was a believer, a muslim. Here we read that she was inspired by Allah with instructions on the account of her baby Moses: "And We revealed to Musa's mother saying: Give him suck. When you fear for him, cast him into the river and do not fear nor grieve, surely We will restore him to you and make him one of the apostles." (28: 7) The same direction is expressed in other Verses: "Call to mind the occasion when We revealed to your mother: Put him into the chest and cast it down into the river, then the river shall throw him on the shore; then shall take him up to one who is an enemy to Me and enemy to him and I cast down upon you love From Me and that you may be brought up before My eyes." (20:38-39) Even though we know from Islamic perceptive that every child is born muslim, his prophet-hood did not commence (officially) as muslim leader of Israelites until after he grown up. The only possible answer I can think of is he was adult at the time Qur'an makes the statement that he was the first muslim among his people(the unbelievers). Quran doesnt reference his mother during his commission. So he was the first muslim amongst his people (he rescued from pharaoh) 2 Likes |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by malvisguy212: 8:42am On Mar 17, 2015 |
Empiree:that is the points I am making, you said Moses is the FIRST among his people to believe, you just say his mother believe in Allah too, between him and his mother who is the first to believe? |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by Empiree: 11:49am On Mar 17, 2015 |
malvisguy212:I dont know how you happened to miss further explanation I gave in the same post your quoted. This is why I hate talking to you sometimes. Please, kindly refer to the same post you quoted. 2 Likes |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by suptol(m): 12:45pm On Mar 17, 2015 |
Matt 4:10, 26:24, 26:31 to mention a few all gave account of Jesus saying "it is written" which made me to draw a conclusion that He read the Bible /scroll when on earth. |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by malvisguy212: 2:10pm On Mar 17, 2015 |
Empiree:your explanation is soo wrong,what you supposed to explained is the belief of Moses mother. if every child is born a muslim, it mean Moses is not the first muslim,am busy now, I will attend to this very post later. |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by Empiree: 3:50pm On Mar 17, 2015 |
malvisguy212:okay, let's hear your possible explanation |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by malvisguy212: 5:39pm On Mar 17, 2015 |
Empiree:explained what? According to you,Moses mother believe in Allah which mean she was a muslim,if Moses say "he was the first muslim according to the quran" this mean Moses lied infacte Moses is a Jew same thing goes to Abraham ,doesent this mean Moses lied for saying he is the first muslim? |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by Empiree: 6:47pm On Mar 17, 2015 |
malvisguy212:Dont even think for a second that I'm gonna go back n fourth with you on this. Go over again, this time read slowly and between the lines. I respect you when you brought your good observation but if you can't read btw the lines, dont quote me. Thanks 1 Like |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by malvisguy212: 9:44pm On Mar 17, 2015 |
Empiree:this is the verse you quote; "And We revealed to Musa's mother saying: Give him suck. When you fear for him, cast him into the river and do not fear nor grieve, surely We will restore him to you and make him one of the apostles." (28: 7) Moses mother believe in Allah and obey this instructions, now before I reply you fully, what is the quranic definition of faith? Let me repeat myself again, All what you wrote in your first post is rubbish!!!! Thank you. |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by Empiree: 4:59am On Mar 18, 2015 |
suptol:Okay, those verses say "scripture(s)". Question is which scripture Jesus read?. If your Answer is "Bible" another question is which of bibles?. To my knowledge, there are over 40 versions of the Bible. They have lots of differences and contradictions. Which one Jesus read?. 2 Likes |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by Shirley07: 5:49am On Mar 18, 2015 |
Empiree:Abeg run along if you have nothing intelligent to say. You and your copy and paste posts should find a cave. Do we have to open your skull to understand that christianity is all about Jesus: his life and nature, his kingdom his salvation through his death and ressurrection? That's what the whole new testament is all about! The 12 disciples were called christians because they behaved like Christ! Simple. Why are the christians here saddled with hill billy with no brain? |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by malvisguy212: 1:04pm On Mar 18, 2015 |
Empiree:non of you guys have been able to use the quran and proved the bible is corrupted,Many Muslims today say the Bible is corrupted. But there is nothing in the Quran that supports this. There is not one word in the Quran that teaches that the Scriptures of the Jews and Christians have been perverted by man. Instead, the opposite is true. The Quran supports the Bible. Isn't it interesting that the Muslims' Quran has nothing to say about the corruption of the Scriptures of the largest religion on earth? During Muhammad's time Christian influence was known in Mecca. There were Jewish and Christian settlements in the Hijaz, and Christianity ringed the Saudi peninsula. Yet not one word is spoken by "Allah" concerning the Scriptures of their faith and not one word on the corruption of His previous Word. The New Testament contains the stories of Jesus identifying Himself as the Son of God, Jesus predicting His crucifixion, death, and resurrection, Jesus calling God "Father". Jesus' teachings are contradicted by Muhammad in the Quran time and time again. Further, the Quran contradicts even the Old Testament stories related to such Biblical figures as Gideon, Saul, David, and Noah. Why didn't Islam's "Allah" speak up on corruption if these Scriptures were inaccurate of false? These themes are fundamental, why would the Muslims' god fail to address their corruption? If such a corruption had actually taken place, wouldn't "Allah" have revealed it in the Quran? The Quran is full of vague statements, misquoted biblical stories, myths from pagan, Jewish, and Christian backgrounds, yet "Allah" has nothing to say about the corruption of His previous word. How could such an omission occur? One has to wonder who Muhammad's "Allah" really was. He certainly didn't appear to be the "All Knowing", or at least, if he knew, he wasn't telling. Or was it that "Allah" didn't know because Muhammad didn't know? Jesus taught that false prophets would come into the world and mislead many. There are passages from the Quran, Hadith, and Sira, that deal with this The Quran clearly testifies that the Scriptures of the People of the Book, i.e., the Old and New Testaments, are the uncorrupted Word of God. Below is a review of Muhammad's words in the Quran that present this. 1) 3:50 - "I come to confirm the Torah which preceded me..." 2) 5:46 - "After them we sent forth Jesus, the son of Mary, confirming the Torah already revealed 3) 35:31 - "What We have revealed to you in the Book is the truth confirming previous Scriptures. God knows and observes His servants. 4) 5:46 - 48 "After them we sent forth Jesus, the son of Mary, confirming the Torah already revealed, and gave him the Gospel, in which there is guidance and light, corroborating what was revealed before it in the Torah, a guide and an admonition to the righteous. Therefore let those who follow the Gospel judge according to what God has revealed therein. 5) 5:66 - "If they observe the Torah and the Gospel..." 6) 10::94 - "If you doubt what We have revealed to you [Muhammad], Ask those who have read the Scriptures before you." 7) 2:113 - "The Jews say the Christians are misguided, and the Christians say it is the Jews who are misguided. Yet they both read the Scriptures..." Muhammad believed in the truths of the Bible. But he did not know what the Bible taught. His ignorance led him to make statements that displayed his lack of knowledge. His self-contradictions prove he was not a prophet of God. |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by Nobody: 4:52pm On Mar 18, 2015 |
@malvisguy212 non of you guys have been able to use the quran and proved the bible is corrupted,Many Muslims today say the Bible is corrupted. But there is nothing in the Quran that supports this. There is not one word in the Quran that teaches that the Scriptures of the Jews and Christians have been perverted by man. Instead, the opposite is true. The Quran supports the Bible. have a look at these: Where the Quran says the Bible has been corrupted The Quran says that the current Torah, Psalms and Gospel (the New Testament) have been badly corrupted. Numerous passages of the Quran refer to man’s distortion and alterations of the previous books of revelations from Allah. These passages in the Quran note that the received books by the People of the Book, The Jews and the Christians, do not conform to the original revelations that were given to Moses, David and Jesus. The following verses from the Quran are among the more direct in addressing this distortion of the prior books of Allah. Can ye (o ye men of Faith) entertain the hope that they will believe in you?- Seeing that a party of them heard the Word of Allah, and perverted it knowingly after they understood it… Then woe to those who write the Book with their own hands, and then say:"This is from Allah," to traffic with it for miserable price!- Woe to them for what their hands do write, and for the gain they make thereby. (Quran 2:75,79) There is among them a section who distort the Book with their tongues: (As they read) you would think it is a part of the Book, but it is no part of the Book; and they say, "That is from Allah," but it is not from Allah: It is they who tell a lie against Allah, and (well) they know it! (Quran 3:78) And remember Allah took a covenant from the People of the Book, to make it known and clear to mankind, and not to hide it; but they threw it away behind their backs, and purchased with it some miserable gain! And vile was the bargain they made! (Quran 3:187) But because of their breach of their covenant, We cursed them, and made their hearts grow hard; they change the words from their (right) places and forget a good part of the message that was sent them, nor wilt thou cease to find them- barring a few - ever bent on (new) deceits: but forgive them, and overlook (their misdeeds): for Allah loveth those who are kind. From those, too, who call themselves Christians, We did take a covenant, but they forgot a good part of the message that was sent them: so we estranged them, with enmity and hatred between the one and the other, to the day of judgment. And soon will Allah show them what it is they have done. (Quran 5:13-14) No just estimate of Allah do they make when they say: "Nothing doth Allah send down to man (by way of revelation)" Say: "Who then sent down the Book which Moses brought?- a light and guidance to man: But ye make it into (separate) sheets for show, while ye conceal much (of its contents): therein were ye taught that which ye knew not- neither ye nor your fathers." Say: "Allah (sent it down)": Then leave them to plunge in vain discourse and trifling. (Quran 6:91) you can read more at: http://www.answering-christian-claims.com/What_the_Quran_says_about_the_Bible.html |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by Empiree: 4:53pm On Mar 18, 2015 |
malvis: You seem to lack comprehension. Didn't I explain this to you before?. Let's keep it simple. Now tell me which bible are you talking about?. You have over 40 different versions. Which one did Jesus read?. When you answer that, I will compare it to what Qur'an said to see if it corresponds to his message. okay?. 1 Like |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by truthman2012(m): 6:23pm On Mar 18, 2015 |
malvisguy212: Good talk bro. Islam of allah is double-faced, designed to lead mankind into deception and eventually take them to hell. When allah speaks in the quran, he would debunk his own statements in the next verses. The quranic quotes you made confirms the bible is true but characteristically, allah denied it in other verses. This is no surprise as we know his true identity. The Devil is a liar. 2 Likes |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by malvisguy212: 6:58pm On Mar 18, 2015 |
truthman2012:God bless you ,Allah cannot be the true God,is words are not steady ,uptil today,I am still trying to differentiate between Allah and muhammed, but I can't they are both one person. Example muhammed thought Arron is the sister of Mary and you know the christians in nijran always exposed him; (Surah 19:27, 28). It reads: "Carrying the child, (Jesus), she (Mary) came to her people, who said to her: "Mary, this is indeed a strange thing! Sister of Aaron, your father was never a LovePeddler-monger, nor was your mother a harlot."" [The Koran, Dawood's translation, pages 215, 216]. This verse states that after Mary gave birth to Christ, her townsfolk reproached her. They thought she was not married, and assumed that she committed sexual sin because she gave birth. In their reproach, they called her, "Sister of Aaron". This mistake was discerned by the Arabic Christians of Najran. There is a record of them exposing Muhammad's mistake about Mary. In Sahih Muslim, the Hadith related by Mughirah ibn Shu'bah, #5326, says: "When I came to Najran, they (the Christians of Najran) asked me: You read "Sister of Harun", (i.e. Mary), in the Qur'an, whereas Moses was born well before Jesus. When I came back to Allah's Messenger I asked him about that, and he said: "The (people of the old age) used to give names (to their persons) after the names of Apostle and pious persons who had gone before them."" [Sahih Muslim, translated by Abdul Siddiqi]. the excuse muhammed gave here exposed his illiteracy, Muhammad said that this manner of using the idiom, "sister of Aaron", was done by the pious people of the "old age", i.e. people who lived during Mary's time. Those people called their fellow citizens after pious persons who had lived earlier. But the Christians of Najran did not recognize the use of this idiom. Although they lived some 600 years after Christ's time, they were familiar with their own religious stories, and certainly those of the Jews. But this idiom struck their ears as peculiar. If the idiom were familiar to them, they would not have objected. But the expression "sister of Aaron", when applied to Mary in relation to Aaron, was not familiar. Further, they did not recognize the technique or model in which this idiom was used. Had they known the custom that Muhammad said existed, of people calling other people "brother" or "sister" of ancient pious people, like possibly, "sister of Moses", "brother of David", "sister of Abraham", "brother of Isaac", they would have understood what the Quran was saying and raised no objection. But both the idiom, and the model in which it is used, were foreign to them. If there would be one place where Mary or someone else might be called "sister of Aaron", it might be in the Bible. But there is no place where Mary or anyone else is metaphorically called "sister of Aaron".the Arab christians understand that the people of old called there pious ones "SON" and "DAUGHTER" muhammed was soo wrong, who inspired him to write this error? Satan offcorse. 1 Like |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by malvisguy212: 7:11pm On Mar 18, 2015 |
Empiree:listen, Jesus did not read the Gospel,he preach the gospel,he only read from the old covenant and each time he read it to the people, he proclaims it FULFILLED ,Jesus is the word of God, all what muhammed wrote in the quran is wrong, God did not give Jesus any book, I wish muhammed was alive, we would have ask him to produce the book let see since non of you have been able to produce just ONE copy, infacte there is not a single quranic manuscript yet you guys open your mouth and called the word of God corrupted,seriously? Satan is only manipulating the word of God, no religion satan can used to carry on his dirty plan except ISLAM, there is many thing you guys don't know about God. 1 Like |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by truthman2012(m): 9:51pm On Mar 18, 2015 |
malvisguy212: I used to wonder too as it is very difficult to differentiate Muhammad and his allah. Numerous verses of the quran say ''obey Allah and his messenger''. Muhammad enjoyed the same power as allah himself. Besides, when he wanted something he would say it was allah that gave him the revelation. A good example is when he wanted to marry Zanab, his adopted son's wife. |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by malvisguy212: 10:17pm On Mar 18, 2015 |
truthman2012:they are blind to notice all this, just like eve confidently accepts the lies of satan,that is how the muslims accepts this lies.bible say in Roman1:25>>>>They EXCHANGED the TRUTh about God for a lie, and worshiped and served created things rather than the Creator--who is forever praised. Amen. And David wrote in the psalms saying;psalms52:3>>>You lOVE EVIL RATHER THAN GOOD, falsehood rather than SPEAKING THE TRUTH. mankind need the salvation of the gospel in christ Jesus , because none could obtain the favour of God, or escape his wrath by their own works. For no man can plead that he has fulfilled all his obligations to God and to his neighbour; nor can any truly say that he has fully acted up to the light afforded him. The sinfulness of man is described as ungodliness against the laws of the first table. ONLY JESUS CAN SAVE. |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by Empiree: 12:16am On Mar 19, 2015 |
[quote author=malvisguy212 post=31755645]Jesus did not read the Gospel,he preach the gospel,Okay, good. He preached the Gospel. That's not much of a problem. Now, the Gospel he preached, where is it? he only read from the old covenant and each time he read it to the people, he proclaims it FULFILLEDOkay, no problem here . So Jesus fulfilled the Old Covenant. Good. The Law stands. Okay Jesus is the word of God,No problem. I believe that too. Same Word of God applies to average human beings that brought us into being. The 'Word' in the context is what Qur'an refers to as "Kun Fayakun" i: Be! and It is. This means anytime God wishes something to be done, He only says to it Be! and the thing became into being. Understand? God did not give Jesus any book,Well, according to Qur'an, Jesus(peace be upon him) was given a scripture(revelation) called Injil. Doesn't mean a Holy Book came down from heaven and he carried it around preaching. No, that's not what it means. I wish muhammed was alive,I wish too. We Muslims actually. we would have ask him to produce the book let see since non of you have been able to produce just ONE copy,Honestly, I fee sad reading this part. It sounds like you are pained because we Qur'an said previous Books have been corrupted. I feel you but evidences abound in the world today as proofs that (with many versions of the Bible NOT just translations) available today. Well, this was explained to you earlier on this thread or another thread. You chose to ignore. Let me endeavor to go through it here again maybe you can figure out if indeed Jesus was sent to MALVISGUY212. Confirmation of Teachings of Previous Revelations Several verses in the Holy Qur'an reveal that every prophet came to confirm teachings of previous prophets. And in their footsteps We sent Jesus the son of Mary, confirming the Law (Torah) that had come before him. We sent him the Injil; therein was guidance and light, and confirmation of the Law that had come before him: a guidance and an admonition to those who fear Allah(Q: 5:46). Now, the above contradicts allnaijablogger who accused me and rilwayne001 that we dont know that Jesus read Old Testament. I just ignored him cuz he didnt make sense to me. Here is what he said earlier on this thread. AllNaijaBlogger:You can go back to p.1 to reconfirm this. So Qur'an sealed off his nonsense. And by agenda to attack Christianity as he said, no I don't. He should be telling his girl friend, ifean all that. Bone of contention Jesus, the son of Mary, said: "O Children of Israel! I am the Messenger of Allah (sent) to you, confirming the Torah (which came) before me, (HQ: 61:6). The holy verses of Qur'an agree with the Gospel where Jesus said: Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil (M't: 5:17). The Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) carried a Call that came to clarify previous Revelations and spell out what was misunderstood. To thee We sent the Book in truth, confirming the Book that came before it, and guarding it in safety (HQ: 5:48) Along that line, The Holy Qur'an respects previous Revelations: It was We who revealed the Law (to Moses): therein was guidance and light. By its standard have been judged the Jews, by the Prophets who bowed to Allah's Will, by the Rabbis and the experts of Law: for to them was entrusted the protection of Allah's Book, and they were witnesses thereto (HQ: 5:44). As it is obvious from the previous verses, it is repeatedly stated that the teachings of each prophet are included in a "Book". Within this context, the "Book" is not necessary a certain Scripture. This conclusion goes in accordance with what was mentioned in other places, and the following example explains it. When the Holy Qur'an speaks about Jesus, it says that Allah, "teach him the Book (kitab) and wisdom, Torah and Gospel" (HQ: 3:48 ). [size=5pt]Four revelations of Allah (swt) are mentioned by name in the Qur’an: the Why Didn't Allah Preserve "Bible" Allah promised in the Quran that He would take on the responsibility of protecting His final word from loss. He said, "Verily I have revealed the Reminder (Quran), and verily I shall preserve it." (Surah al-Hijr (15):9) Thus, the Quran has been preserved in both the oral as well as written form in a way no other religious book in history has. Why did Allah preserve the Quran and allow His earlier books of divine revelation to be changed or lost?. The answer to that question lies in the following three facts: 1- The earlier prophets and their books were sent to a particular people in particular periods of history. Once the period ended, a new prophet was sent with a new book to replace the previous book. So, it was not necessary that these books be preserved by Allah. The preservation of the earlier books was left up to the people as a test for them. Thus, when the people went astray, they changed what was written in the books which their prophets brought in order to make allowable the things which were forbidden to them. In that way, all of the earlier books of revelation became either changed or lost. 2- Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) was the last prophet whom Allah sent, and he was not sent to a particular people or a particular time. He was sent to all of mankind until the end of the world. Allah said in the Quran, "I have only sent you (Muhammad) as a giver of glad tidings and a warner to all mankind, but most men do not understand." [Noble Quran 34:28] Thus, his book of revelation, the Quran, had to be specially preserved from any form of change or loss so that it would be available to all the generations of man until the last day of the world. 3- The Quran was the main miracle given to Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) to prove that he was a true prophet of Allah and not an imposter. So, the Quran had to be saved to prove to the later generations that Muhammad (peace be upon him) was really the last prophet of Allah. All of the false prophets who came after Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) brought books which they claimed to be revealed from Allah, but none of them have the miraculous ability to be memorized by thousands, nor have they improved on the message of the Quran. The significance of the Quran's preservation is that Islam has been kept in its original purity because of it. Humanity can always return to the sources of Islam no matter what people may have added or forgotten in time. All of the essential principles of Islam are to be found in the Quran. Consequently, the preservation of the Quran meant the preservation of Islam in its final form. The loss of the Gospel of Jesus means that Christians can never return to the true teachings of Prophet Jesus except by accepting Islam. Similarly, the original Torah was lost when Solomon's Temple in Jerusalem was destroyed by the Babylonians. Thus, the Jews cannot return to the pure teachings of Prophet Moses except by following Islam. It is only in Islam that the pure teachings of the prophets have been preserved without any change. That is why Allah said in the Quran, "Verily, the only acceptable religion to Allah is Islam." [Noble Quran 3:19] infacte there is not a single quranic manuscript yet you guys open your mouth and called the word of God corrupted,seriously?Dont be sad brother. Truth has to be told. You keep saying Prophet Muhammad(p) accepted Bible as word of God. Where in the Qur'an is says "Bible"?. Where in the Bible itself it calls itself Bible?. And if Bible is word of God, why do you have different doctrines in Christendom?. Some believe Jesus is God. Some believe he's not God. Some or all of you believe he son of God. Some believe he's part of trinity. These are clear contradictions over. God is not the author of confusion. And there are many other conflicting passages in both Old & New Testaments which means Bible you have today contains fingerprints of men. Can't you read that from my earlier posts on authors of the Bible?. Even allnaijablogger admitted there are unknown authors of the Bible. Were these unknown authors also inspired by God?. Author is different from Transtor Author means a person who writes a novel, poem, essay, etc.; the composer of a literary work, as distinguished from a compiler, translator, editor, or copyist. Translator means the act or process of translating, especially from one language into another But Qur'an says no one can author it except Allah: "This Qur'an is not such as can be produced by other than Allah; on the contrary it is a confirmation of (revelations) that went before it, and a fuller explanation of the Book - wherein there is no doubt - from the Lord of the worlds." (Qur'an 10:37) AllNaijaBlogger: ...the new testament is an account of his life told by others. This means Bible is hearsay just like hadith. Actually, hadith has higher standard than bible bcuz we know 99.99% first and last names of hadith narrators including their backgrounds. Unlike your bible, you have no idea who those writers are. And of-course, to be fair, Bible does contain some word of God. No muslim denies this. We only say it's distorted. Here is hadith statement on this: Narrated Abu Huraira: The people of the Scripture (Jews) used to recite the Torah in Hebrew and they used to explain it in Arabic to the Muslims. On that Allah's Apostle said, "Do not believe the people of the Scripture or disbelieve them, but say:-- "We believe in Allah and what is revealed to us." (2.136) (Bukhari Volume 6, Book 60, Number 12) Narrated Ubaidullah: Ibn 'Abbas said, "Why do you ask the people of the scripture about anything while your Book (Quran) which has been revealed to Allah's Apostle is newer and the latest? You read it pure, undistorted and unchanged, and Allah has told you that the people of the scripture (Jews and Christians) changed their scripture and distorted it, and wrote the scripture with their own hands and said, 'It is from Allah,' to sell it for a little gain. Does not the knowledge which has come to you prevent you from asking them about anything? No, by Allah, we have never seen any man from them asking you regarding what has been revealed to you!" (Bukhari Volume 9, Book 92, Number 461) At this present, there are over 40 bible versions with variations. Let me name few: Homosexual Bible, Kiddie Bible, Women Bible, Amplified Bible, Judas Bible, Barnabas Gospel, and a dude from German also has his own Bible "Easy-to-read version". So I ask you again, which one did Jesus preach?. Satan is only manipulating the word of God,humm, indeed. Tell this to Bible writers. They know better. Now to answer your question again. You asked: malvisguy212: There is among them a section who distort the Book with their tongues: (As they read) you would think it is a part of the Book, but it is no part of the Book; and they say, "That is from Allah," but it is not from Allah: It is they who tell a lie against Allah, and (well) they know it! (Quran 3:78) But because of their breach of their covenant, We cursed them, and made their hearts grow hard; they change the words from their (right) places and forget a good part of the message that was sent them, nor wilt thou cease to find them- barring a few - ever bent on (new) deceits: but forgive them, and overlook (their misdeeds): for Allah loveth those who are kind. From those, too, who call themselves Christians, We did take a covenant, but they forgot a good part of the message that was sent them: so we estranged them, with enmity and hatred between the one and the other, to the day of judgment. And soon will Allah show them what it is they have done. (Quran 5:13-14)[/color] You see the bold part?...clearly captured the whole thing. Haven't they wrote many more Bibles today including those I cited above?. Goodluck man. 1 Like 1 Share |
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