i will prove the op wrong once and for all

on the line when he said (10 + 10) (10 - 10)/10 (10-10)

he cut (10 - 10)/ (10 - 10)and remains (10 + 10)/10

well you can't do that, if (10 -10)/(10 - 10) = 1, then you already assume 0/0 = 1 (since 10 - 10 = 0).
if you assume 0/0 = 1, then 0/0 cannot be 2.

[quote author=jonaji post=33577856] pls, note that there is a condition and your assumption based on the equation: a2-b2=(a+b)(a-b) applies only when: a .ne. b

The OP is absolutely correct for ALL his solving. He break no rule even that of BODMAS. He solved that independently , handling his numerator and denominator independently . Again didn't break any rule in raising power since he raise them independently (10^2) - (10^2) . The applied his difference of two square neatly then he factorise the denominator peacefully theen divides by principle and treaty of division and multiplication . The only problem there is that ANALYTICALLY he is 100% correct but NUMERICALLY he failed . Every solving in mathematics can only be agreed on internationally once that particular problem can be achieved ANALYTICALLY and NUMERICALLY. Op have done a great work but his work can't help since it can't be back up numerically and this world problem is a numerical problem and not analytic. Peace. Mathematician will understand me

a^2 - b^2 = (a+b)(a-b) the prove said 10^2 - 10^2 = (10+10)(10-10) which is false, because from above 'a' has to be unequal to 'b' for the 10^2 - 10^2 to hold.

o/0 = 2

NICE COMMENT

The OP is absolutely correct for ALL his solving. He break no rule even that of BODMAS. He solved that independently , handling his numerator and denominator independently . Again didn't break any rule in raising power since he raise them independently (10^2) - (10^2) . The applied his difference of two square neatly then he factorise the denominator peacefully theen divides by principle and treaty of division and multiplication . The only problem there is that ANALYTICALLY he is 100% correct but NUMERICALLY he failed . Every solving in mathematics can only be agreed on internationally once that particular problem can be achieved ANALYTICALLY and NUMERICALLY. Op have done a great work but his work can't help since it can't be back up numerically and this world problem is a numerical problem and not analytic. Peace. Mathematician will understand me

[quote author=makwonda post=33599441][/quote]a^2 - b^2 = (a+b)(a-b) ,where a,b E R^n meeans , applies every where in mathematics . Even in , Baire space
Banach space
Besov space
Bochner space
Cantor space
Dual space
Euclidean space
Eilenberg-MacLane space
Bleep space
Fréchet space
Hardy space
Hilbert space
Hölder space
Kolmogorov space
LF-space
Lp space
Minkowski space
Montel space
Moore space
Morrey–Campanato space
Orlicz space
Riesz space
Schwartz space
Sobolev space
Tsirelson space

Its not easy for one to think out those steps.kudos for that but, I have to stress that he got it wrong in figure 3. Every mathematical proof has to be consistent, therefore the numerator and the denominator should be expressed the same way. Thus, for a mathematical expression or proof to be correct; it has to be consistent .

CashVessel:
So wrong; the BODMAS principle was broken. Secondly, 10 x 10 - 10x 10 cannot be 10(10-10). That's an error.

10x10-10x10 = 10(10-10).... He didn't even need to include the step. It is correct Sir!

emmaxin:
a^2 - b^2 = (a+b)(a-b)
the prove said
10^2 - 10^2 = (10+10)(10-10)
which is false, because from above
'a' has to be unequal to 'b' for the 10^2 - 10^2 to hold.

no my dear , a,b both element of R and R real number and and a,b not strictly N , N natural number . Mean even if a = b the rule must and must work even in heaven and in hell. Even if a , and b are negative numbers the rule must work everywhere and in every space. If that rule can work topologically it must work in every space

ikennaya100:
Its not easy for one to think out those steps.kudos for that but, I have to stress that he got it wrong in figure 3. Every mathematical proof has to be consistent, therefore the numerator and the denominator should be expressed the same way. Thus, for a mathematical expression or proof to be correct; it has to be consistent .

In the law of Algebra, anything goes. 1 can be log10 base 10, or wateva u presume just to achieve a set Proof! The only fault in this is the naïve mindset. 0/0 can be anything betw 1 and positive infinity only with the condition of using numbers with complete square (e.g 4,9,16,25....)

ikennaya100:
Its not easy for one to think out those steps.kudos for that but, I have to stress that he got it wrong in figure 3. Every mathematical proof has to be consistent, therefore the numerator and the denominator should be expressed the same way. Thus, for a mathematical expression or proof to be correct; it has to be consistent .

is like telling me that my neigh our has to tell me whatt to do in my own house . Work of thatt division line between numerator and denominator is for in dependency , so consistency hav been broken by that line dear. He can even chose to leave numerator and tackle denominator and conversely. So he is ok

brytandre:



In the law of Algebra, anything goes. 1 can be log10 base 10, or wateva u presume just to achieve a set Proof! The only fault in this is the naïve mindset. 0/0 can be anything betw 1 and positive infinity only with the condition of using numbers with complete square (e.g 4,9,16,25....)

that's the problem , that's why 0/0 = indeterminate , no one have determine the main answer since it take so many value.
Like 0/0 = R ( R any number )
If you cross multiply
0 = 0xR
If R=(..........,-3,-2,-1,0,1,2,3,................)
0=0
Thus R takes any number.
Then
0/0= indeterminate

Thanks

wow

Jumbledwords:
Lol, everything was okay till he/she decided to expand 10^2 - 10^2

*Modified

Nothing wrong with the expansion, it's what happens with the resulting brackets that is the bone of contention.

Bros DAT is difference of 2 squares.. The manipulations are correct howbeit we don't solve like dat

adewaletb3:
So_fucking wrong. Why would you prove like a goat

the proof is logical enough except you don't know mathematics before. D guy shld be commended.

dat's mathematics for u......too much manipulation just to get d answer...........it is absolutely useful to some extent buh nt to d xtent of making it compulsory for for literature, government students...... 2+2 and other minor equation will do for them

chaloner:
The OP is absolutely correct for ALL his solving. He break no rule even that of BODMAS. He solved that independently , handling his numerator and denominator independently . Again didn't break any rule in raising power since he raise them independently (10^2) - (10^2) . The applied his difference of two square neatly then he factorise the denominator peacefully theen divides by principle and treaty of division and multiplication . The only problem there is that ANALYTICALLY he is 100% correct but NUMERICALLY he failed . Every solving in mathematics can only be agreed on internationally once that particular problem can be achieved ANALYTICALLY and NUMERICALLY. Op have done a great work but his work can't help since it can't be back up numerically and this world problem is a numerical problem and not analytic. Peace. Mathematician will understand me

Wrong.

He did break BODMAS. And that is where his trick lies

Ever wondered why BODMAS starts with a B for Bracket?

You solve Brackets first and always first. (Though it might not matter in cases like 2*(a+b)/4*(a+b) where 'a' and 'b' are non-zeroes. That it does not change the answer does not mean the mathematical approach is correct. It is just a shortcut we use)

Same way Division comes before Multiplication which appears not to matter if multiplication comes first in most situations. But it does matter for all situations.

Conclusion. 0/0 is undefined.

iamkim7:

Now please don't draw me into an argument. Now when we were at secondary level when the concept of infinity could not be easily put across we used undefined for any solution where a numerator is being divided by zero. But at higher levels where we can now grasp the concept we know that dy/dx as dx--->0 =infinity. So undefined has now been replaced by infinity.
Now let's use common logic and english can you define infinity?

If you know about complex numbers, there won't be any need for this sermon. Check what complex number theory defines infinity as.

he applied a rule correctly to a wrong situation,if that was algebra he would have been right

skyope:


Wrong.

He did break BODMAS. And that is where his trick lies

Ever wondered why BODMAS starts with a B for Bracket?

You solve Brackets first and always first. (Though it might not matter in cases like 2*(a+b)/4*(a+b) where 'a' and 'b' are non-zeroes. That it does not change the answer does not mean the mathematical approach is correct. It is just a shortcut we use)

Same way Division comes before Multiplication which appears not to matter if multiplication comes first in most situations. But it does matter for all situations.

Conclusion. 0/0 is undefined.

I'm not dragging with you , I'm not bragging also , I'm teaching you the basic.
Even if I see you moro I will teach you and you will bow.
When a bracket comes as a termic bracket then division supersedes them all . Divison always goes with multiplication once you obey they treaty in division by turning upside down the only next fraction and change thee divison to multiplication , also we can solve addition and subtraction at the same time peacefully by seeking their LCM.

Again pls 0/0 is not undefined(infinity) but indeterminate, pls learn we havee so many of indeterminats like 0^0, infinity^0, 1^infinity, infinity - infinity , infinity ^ infinity.

Lastly this is not a shortcut its a pure solution but just that he got jus one answer when their are many answers for 0/0

no one have determine the
main answer since it take so many value.
Like 0/0 = R ( R any number )
If you cross multiply
0 = 0xR
If R=(..........,-3,-2,-1,0,1,2,3,................) Except infinity(positive or negative)
0=0
Thus R takes any number.
Then
0/0= indeterminate

So the just pick 2 while we still have so many of the answers of 0/0
Thanks

@Op it's a good attempt but you're simply inconsistent. This is not a question of using variables X & Y. The numbers are clearly provided by you. If you're in doubt turn what you have up here into monetary/empirical values, your guess is as good as mine. Stop being analytical, this is a real life situation. Thanks

The guy is a magician not a mathematician.
How did he get those hundreds? If he says it is a percentage symbol, percentage symbol is not 0 over 0.

chaloner:
I'm not dragging with you , I'm not bragging also , I'm teaching you the basic.
Even if I see you moro I will teach you and you will bow.
When a bracket comes as a termic bracket then division supersedes them all . Divison always goes with multiplication once you obey they treaty in division by turning upside down the only next fraction and change thee divison to multiplication , also we can solve addition and subtraction at the same time peacefully by seeking their LCM.

Again pls 0/0 is not undefined(infinity) but indeterminate, pls learn we havee so many of indeterminats like 0^0, infinity^0, 1^infinity, infinity - infinity , infinity ^ infinity.

Lastly this is not a shortcut its a pure solution but just that he got jus one answer when their are many answers for 0/0

no one have determine the
main answer since it take so many value.
Like 0/0 = R ( R any number )
If you cross multiply
0 = 0xR
If R=(..........,-3,-2,-1,0,1,2,3,................)
0=0
Thus R takes any number.
Then
0/0= indeterminate

So the just pick 2 while we still have so many of the answers of 0/0
Thanks

Hehe.

I dont even know where to start.

First with english. Undefined is not the same as infinity. For this purpose, it is the same as indeterminate. For this, Google.com is your friend.

Secondly, you confuse what works, with what is right. (a+b+c)/(a+b+c) with didvision first is only equal to 1 when a,b and c are non-zeroes. The non-zeroes part is really important. Else we have to follow BODMAS strictly by solving the bracket b4 the division.

B4 you respond, try google zero divided by zero, so no need for argument.

0/0 is undefined and yes indeed, indeterminate.

By the way, what is a termic bracket

wonda26:

Bros, you fall my hand.

Did you do maths at all?

Unfortunately, you my friend, seems to be the dullard

a serious one at that... no wonder he is writing his 6th JAMB!

chaloner:
just teaching you dear, I believe we are here to learn and I'm teaching you, we have many problems in maths world that has no answer unlike infinity (its an answer) like if you are solving limit of functions you dear not jam indeterminate else you go back and resolve that limit, and it comes to play in rational functions which is a quotient of functions . R(x) is said to be a raional function if thereexist a function Q(x) and P(x) such that R(x) = Q(x)/P(x). Thus if Q(x) = P(x) = 0 then R(x) becomes indeterminate then at this stage you seek some methods of factorization to reduce the function first or if the limits is tending to infinity you have to devide each term with the highest power of that functional variable, or you use the method of L'Hopitals if solving limit in other to excape from the domain of INDETERMINATE. Other indeterminate we have in maths world are , 0/0 , 0 x infinity , 0^ 0 , 1^ infinity , infinity ^ 0 , infinity/infinity , infinity - infinity ( because infinity is not equal to infinity ) my infinity is not your infinity , if I can see from A to B as infinity then you may see from A to C as infinity thus infinity - infinity = indeterminate . Thanks

Err.. Are you expecting Me to read this?

chaii,,Nigerians!!,,no wonder most people don't like mathematics,,the keep failing it, and failing it, but still keep it and the don't know why ,,,any thing divided by zero is undefined/infinity, (in a lame man's language, it means UNSTABLE, ie it can be 0,15,6,2,9,22 etc.. any1 can prove 0/0 to be anything! but everyone knows that 2/2 is 1,, 6/2 is 3,,,, 5/2 is 2.5,,etc)
'That is to say', Op is right...

Blo.ck brains would be like:
''Sir, but, I thought I got it right nah ''

taiwotosho22:
Literally, the workings are correct but mathematically wrong. 0/0 is indeterminable. It could be anything i.e if you use another number apart from 100 to prove u could get another answer. Now OP use old numbers instead of even numbers to prove, u will see that u won't be able to prove it.

How about this

jonaji:
Very Creative I tell you.... So students in the house.... You can use it to challenge ur teachers

.
0/0 is infinite. The numbers are uncountable. 100-100/100-100= 10^2-10^2/10^2-10^2= [10-10][10+10]/[10-10][10+10]= 1. Or 0/0= 100-100/100-100= 10(10-10)/10^2-10^2= 10(10-10)/(10-10)(10+10)= 10/(10+10)= 10/20= 1/2. So 0/0 can be a lot of things and that's why 0/0 is infinite or undetermined. Numbers do not lie, but people lie.

woow...nigerians are too genius fa. no wonder south africa are afraid of us. even USA.
3 GBOSA FOR 9JA

skyope:


Hehe.

I dont even know where to start.

First with english. Undefined is not the same as infinity. For this purpose, it is the same as indeterminate. For this, Google.com is your friend.

Secondly, you confuse what works, with what is right. (a+b+c)/(a+b+c) with didvision first is only equal to 1 when a,b and c are non-zeroes. The non-zeroes part is really important. Else we have to follow BODMAS strictly by solving the bracket b4 the division.

B4 you respond, try google zero divided by zero, so no need for argument.

0/0 is undefined and yes indeed, indeterminate.

By the way, what is a termic bracket

Performing standard arithmetic with negaive/positive infinity is UNDEFINED, so 0/0 could be manipulated to fall in this set of numbers. Mathematics for u bro

This is what Happens when a confused. man from otuoke leads the nation