skyope:


Hehe.

I dont even know where to start.

First with english. Undefined is not the same as infinity. For this purpose, it is the same as indeterminate. For this, Google.com is your friend.

Secondly, you confuse what works, with what is right. (a+b+c)/(a+b+c) with didvision first is only equal to 1 when a,b and c are non-zeroes. The non-zeroes part is really important. Else we have to follow BODMAS strictly by solving the bracket b4 the division.

B4 you respond, try google zero divided by zero, so no need for argument.

0/0 is undefined and yes indeed, indeterminate.

By the way, what is a termic bracket

first in maths I'm above goggle , I can't spent 5year reading maths only and a year and six months doing my masters in maths and u expect me to be moving around gogle then I failed my nation and the world.

But for you let me give you your google deefinition and not my : without fixed limits; indefinite in form,
extent, or application:
Hope you are happy now .

If you did your set so well you will remember , definite(finite) sets and indefinite (infinite ) sets indefinite which are elements to infinity are undefined , they do no exist , mathematically they suppose but no time to start looking for it but indeterminate do exist but have not been determined because of having so many value and we don't which one to pick , not only it have so many value it even includes infinity itself that makes the whole thing more complicated.

May be you have not heard something like this : (1)indeterminate is a function of infinity
(2) Indeterminate is a proper superset of infinity.

Try and read your books it pays. I'm still reading , even now I'm gaining knowledge

The procedures are correct( difference of two squares), but its is physically,scientifically and spiritually wrong.

Hitter:

Err.. Are you expecting Me to read this?

you have to and must

barnabas91:
woow...nigerians are too genius fa. no wonder south africa are afraid of us. even USA.
3 GBOSA FOR 9JA

U neva see question b4
if na beta question the post here, trust me,,na 'view and next' na im everybody go de do

brytandre:



Performing standard arithmetic with negaive/positive infinity is UNDEFINED, so 0/0 could be manipulated to fall in this set of numbers. Mathematics for u bro

There is no manipulation in mathematics. This is just a classical mathematical illusion where what is right is replaced by what appears to work.

Application of BODMAS strictly will destroy the logic expressed.

Wrong calculations, the wrong step is cancelling out (10-10)/(10-10), that is dividing 0 by 0,
0/0 does not have a definite answer, you cant divide by zero, it is illegal.

brytandre:



In the law of Algebra, anything goes. 1 can be log10 base 10, or wateva u presume just to achieve a set Proof! The only fault in this is the naïve mindset. 0/0 can be anything betw 1 and positive infinity only with the condition of using numbers with complete square (e.g 4,9,16,25....)

Na only you go school. Every body just dey misyan. 0/0 = infinity. You can solve the problem and get 1, 2 etc. That is why it is infinite. Any number divided by zero is infinite. If the guy like, make e solve 0/0 = 4, na still wash. O/0 is infinite

chaloner:
first in maths I'm above goggle , I can't spent 5year reading maths only and a year and six months doing my masters in maths and u expect me to be moving around gogle then I failed my nation and the world.

But for you let me give you your google deefinition and not my : without fixed limits; indefinite in form,
extent, or application:
Hope you are happy now .

If you did your set so well you will remember , definite(finite) sets and indefinite (infinite ) sets indefinite which are elements to infinity are undefined , they do no exist , mathematically they suppose but no time to start looking for it but indeterminate do exist but have not been determined because of having so many value and we don't which one to pick , not only it have so many value it even includes infinity itself that makes the whole thing more complicated.

May be you have not heard something like this : (1)indeterminate is a function of infinity
(2) Indeterminate is a proper superset of infinity.

Try and read your books it pays. I'm still reading , even now I'm gaining knowledge

Good you learning something.

Reading through the post of most here, I have noticed the believe that (a+b)/(a+b) will always be 1. This is not true. I cannot over emphasize that it is only true for[b] non-zeroes of 'a' and 'b'[/b]. For an absolute truth, you must strictly apply BODMAS.

This is where the trick is. It is really just a trick. Playing on the believe that (a+b)/(a+b) will always be 1.

In fact, that is the purpose of the entire exercise.

BODMAS is king, forever.

skyope:


There is no manipulation in mathematics. This is just a classical mathematical illusion where what is right is replaced by what appears to work.

Application of BODMAS strictly will destroy the logic expressed.

BODMAS is as elementary as it gets when dealing with A-level algebra. I forgot to " " the manipulation. (I.e "manipulation"

If u ve done trigonometry in its advanced form (even elementary), u'll get wat I'm saying. As for his equation, its simple and plain to see. The rules of BODMAS negligible

Ancientx:


Cool.. Yes in Maths a can be equal to b.. but not when using difference of two squares.. Except if am missing something.. Because that will just end up as zero.

true.

logica:
LMAO. With this kind of paradox that had been treated since the days of Aristotle?

Speak in clear terms.

emekachimek:


But his fractionalization was wrong: 100-100 is never 10^2 - 10^2 because -100 is NOT equal to -10^2. -10^2 = +100.

let me help your doubt sir

[(100) - (100)] = [(10^2) - (10^2)]

Waoh! Hello guys, I am impressed the Aristotelian brilliance and Pestalozzian explication of those who have contributed so far. It only proves unequivocally that there are Nigerians out there who are nulli secundus to any other intellectuals and geniuses in the world.

First and foremost: Let's understand this 0/0 can result in any possibility. That is why 0/0= infinity, that is, the answer is indeterminate.

What the original mathematician did is logically and mathematically correct, even though he apparently displayed what we seemed like equational thurmaturgy along the line. Essential, he was correct and cannot be proved wrong. This means, another mathematicial may say 0/0=14 and may bring in other factors and still correctly land at 14. The possibilities are limitless.

For the rookies, greenhorns and abecedarians who are battling with acalculia ( hatred of numbers or mathematics), please NEVER expect 0/0 to equal 0. it is not so.

Let me also correct the impression of those who think the mathematician got it wrong when he stated thus: (100-100) = 10^2-10^2
= (10+10)(10-10). This is perfectly in line. They argued that -100 can not be -10^2 OR that -10^2 = +100. Whatever the viewpoint they adopt, they are simply operating on a nebulochaotic reasoning and fallacious inconsistency.

Look at it this way (100 -100) = (10^2) - (10^2). Now (x^2 - y^2) = (x+y) (x-y). SIMPLE. Let's not introduce any confusion here. so this gives (10 +10) (10 -10).

All in all, this arguments may not have surfaced at all if people understand that 0/0 = infinity

Thanks.

Dum spero spero, Dum vivimus vivamus. ( While I live I hope. Let us live while we are live)

GOD bless you all.

d matmagician is ryt,bt accordin to my txtbook,anytin divided by itself is equal to 1...derefor,0/0=1..warri cant carry last..we no book die.

skyope:


Good you learning something.

Reading through the post of most here, I have noticed the believe that (a+b)/(a+b) will always be 1. This is not true. I cannot over emphasize that it is only true for[b] non-zeroes of 'a' and 'b'[/b]. For an absolute truth, you must strictly apply BODMAS.

This is where the trick is. It is really just a trick. Playing on the believe that (a+b)/(a+b) will always be 1.

In fact, that is the purpose of the entire exercise.

BODMAS is king, forever.

(a+b)/(a+b) will be equal to one iff a=a and b=b, but mehn, Algebra is not as confused as u! a is a and b is b, so why will their sums not conceal each other out

BODMAS? Primary school stuff.....there are theorems, corollary and definitions that make it less applicable.

cupid1:
my brother, i don't know if it's my eye, my phone or the weather, but what i'm seeing in the denominator is (0-10). That's probably what the people liking my first post are also seeing. I gave my hypothesis based on what i saw

Hehehehe. Take orijin

brytandre:



BODMAS is as elementary as it gets when dealing with A-level algebra. I forgot to " " the manipulation. (I.e "manipulation"

If u ve done trigonometry in its advanced form (even elementary), u'll get wat I'm saying. As for his equation, its simple and plain to see. The rules of BODMAS negligible

BODMAS is as elementary? I will disagree. But i do not argue. I understand the temptation to reduce it to elementary considering it is taught in primary school.

But whether na rocket science o, or trig. BODMAS is king. You cannot break it and get away with it "easily".

Kojochyke:
d matmagician is ryt,bt accordin to my txtbook,anytin divided by itself is equal to 1...derefor,0/0=1..warri cant carry last..we no book die.

And u are absolutely correct too

0/0= (100+100)(100-100)/ (100+100)(100-100) = 1

The more reason why anything divided by 0 is UNDEFINED (can take any form)

Numbers never lie, people lie. You shall know the truth(numbers) and the truth(numbers) shall set you free.

brytandre:




(a+b)/(a+b) will be equal to one iff a=a and b=b, but mehn, Algebra is not as confused as u! a is a and b is b, so why will their sums not conceal each other out

BODMAS? Primary school stuff.....there are theorems, corollary and definitions that make it less applicable.

O Really. Can you spare me just 1 example that makes BODMAS less applicable. Note, BODMAS is not a principle nor theorem nor corollary nor definition. It is just a way to teach maths

.

chaloner:
first in maths I'm above goggle , I can't spent 5year reading maths only and a year and six months doing my masters in maths and u expect me to be moving around gogle then I failed my nation and the world.

But for you let me give you your google deefinition and not my : without fixed limits; indefinite in form,
extent, or application:
Hope you are happy now .

If you did your set so well you will remember , definite(finite) sets and indefinite (infinite ) sets indefinite which are elements to infinity are undefined , they do no exist , mathematically they suppose but no time to start looking for it but indeterminate do exist but have not been determined because of having so many value and we don't which one to pick , not only it have so many value it even includes infinity itself that makes the whole thing more complicated.

May be you have not heard something like this : (1)indeterminate is a function of infinity
(2) Indeterminate is a proper superset of infinity.

Try and read your books it pays. I'm still reading , even now I'm gaining knowledge

Guy these your arguments are not usual. How do you expect everyone not that deep or vast in maths to command the same level of knowledge. . Real analysis is not learnt by anybody, only mathematicians, maybe some computer science people.

skyope:


BODMAS is as elementary? I will disagree. But i do not argue. I understand the temptation to reduce it to elementary considering it is taught in primary school.

But whether na rocket science o, or trig. BODMAS is king. You cannot break it and get away with it "easily".

No need to argue. Have u ever done proofs before e.g show that ....bla bla bla

The Answer is given already but u have to work out the procedures. Yes BODMAS comes in place......but on the reverse angle (I.e working from Answer back to question), what do u think becomes of ur BODMAS?

My fellow mathematicians, can any one prove that area of a circle is pie * r^2. How did the pie constant get generated?

skyope:


O Really. Can you spare me just 1 example that makes BODMAS less applicable. Note, BODMAS is not a principle nor theorem nor corollary nor definition. It is just a way to teach maths

If u see maths, u go fit stand so? Guess what, I don't think so........BODMAS is negligible before u make other non-maths student get the wrong idea

which school you go?

adewaletb3:
So_fucking wrong. Why would you prove like a goat

brytandre:



If u see maths, u go fit stand so? Guess what, I don't think so........BODMAS is negligible before u make other non-maths student get the wrong idea

You are a mathematician. Prove you thoughts with maths. Show me how BODMAS is negligible. Enough of english.

you can get whatever value you want when you divide by 0

godofOrijin:



Mathematics is one abstract discipline. I could just prove 1 + 1 != 2 by following the so called mathematical principles.

@ the guy arguing that anything divided by zero is infinite so 0/0 should be infinite due to the zero @ the denominator, do you realize the numerator is also 0? Nd going by what you claim, we could also draw a straight conclusion by saying the answer is zero. We now have two conflicting results... Zero, infinite. The result ''1'' is realistic because zero and infinite are two opposing forces of mathematical principle which crosses out to one.

Well said

Interesting.....It is actually mathematically correct.....Seeing that there is no stringent rule to follow when doing a mathematical proof, i don't see the fault here....He/She was able to get to this answer by inconsistency seeing that the expansion methods of the numerator and denominator was different...i really like this.....dang!!!!!

****Modified
I did a google search and it returned the following:
In ordinary arithmetic, the expression has no meaning, as there is no number which, multiplied by 0, gives a (assuming a≠0), and so division by zero is undefined. Since any number multiplied by zero is zero, the expression 0/0 also has no defined value and is called an indeterminate form.

===> this proof is undefined and rubbish!!! lol

skyope:


You are a mathematician. Prove you thoughts with maths. Show me how BODMAS is negligible. Enough of english.

E.g in Indices and Logarithm (for ur level)......BODMAS does not account for powers (squares and square roots), exponentials, constants.......lemme not go further


I don't need to solve anything here, do I? I'm sure u get it: Bracket of division multiplication......bla bla bla, the ones I mentioned up is not accounted for and that's y I said it is NEGLIGIBLE!