Dunsin89:
Wen is ui supplementary list be out?

January 1.2016 unfailingly.

INTROVERT247:
I don't think you guys can apply for the scholarship now since you haven't resume as 100 level student.

The questions will comprises mathematics,aptitude test(verbal and quantitative) and english language. You can start practising now with gmat.

Mention me with your email if you need gmat.

bunmiaransiola@gmail.com...thanks

Since una like scholarship, another one be this

TeHN:
TeHN is calling all school leavers (Those not already in universities) to apply for the 2015/16 TNRI scholarship

Are you a school leaver?

Are you or your parents experiencing some sort of financial difficulties?

Are you of good character with goals of getting a quality university degree?

If you can answer yes to the 3 questions above then this is the chance you've been waiting for.

The Nigerian Renaissance Initiative Scholarship has been set up by an anonymous donor to run every year so as to enable school leavers with university ambitions that would have otherwise not been able to achieve their educational aspirations due to financial constraints.

Application is open to all so if you know someone or you can say yes to the 3 questions then please send in your applications.

Applicants are to email the committee a 400 worded essay on how technology has changed their lives.

The essays should be forwarded to => ehelpersnetwork@gmail.com


Terms of Reference and timeline =>
https://www.nairaland.com/1842604/tehn-calling-all-school-leavers#25221631

FAQ’s =>
https://www.nairaland.com/1842604/tehn-calling-all-school-leavers/3#25276234

2014/15 winner =>
https://www.nairaland.com/aymost1
https://www.nairaland.com/1842604/tehn-calling-all-school-leavers/9#36385102


Application deadline is the 31st of December 2015

thankyouJesus:
Since una like scholarship, another one be this

I no like this one joor.....thanks anyway

Gud afternoon everyone, can a polytechnic student who studied SLT dat is science Lab. Tech apply for Microbiology or Medical Laboratory Science in UI through DE with Distinction?

dorcaspedia:
Gud afternoon everyone, can a polytechnic student who studied SLT dat is science Lab. Tech apply for Microbiology or Medical Laboratory Science in UI through DE with Distinction?

U can apply for mls but dont waste ur time for microbiology. Ui doesnt take nd for faculty of science except geology and comp science

Seunvense:
Sent. Hi,I try sending it several times but it keeps writing error message stating that it will be send after two days.

Thanks Bro really appreciate it

Bhuumhite:
bunmiaransiola@gmail.com...thanks

greatdavid1:
pls help(greatdavid007@yahoo.com)

Sent.

INTROVERT247:
I don't think you guys can apply for the scholarship now since you haven't resume as 100 level student.

The questions will comprises mathematics,aptitude test(verbal and quantitative) and english language. You can start practising now with gmat.

Mention me with your email if you need gmat.

folamimichael49@gmail.com.....thanks bro

SORRY THIS CAME LATER THAN PROMISED


Graduate Management Admission Test (GMAT)

Quantitative Section


? In the math section, you will have 75 minutes to answer 37 questions:
? A of these question are experimental and would not be counted toward your score.
There is no way to identify which questions are experimental as they one mixed in
randomly through out the section.
? This section includes two types of questions: Problem solving and Data sufficiency.
? For each problem solving section, you are to solve the problem and indicate the best of
the answer choices given.
? For each data sufficiency question, you are to decide whether the information given in
each of two statements, labeled (1) and (2), is sufficient to answer the question, whether
the information in the two statements together is sufficient, or if neither is sufficient.
? More detailed dissection will appear before the first occurrence of each question type. At
any point in the test, you can read the direction for the question type you working on by
clicking on HELP.

Quantitative Section

Time: 75 minutes

Solve the problem and indicate the best answer choices given.

Number: All the numbers used are Real Numbers

Figure: A figure accompanying used a problem solving is intended to provide information
useful in solving the problem. Figures are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it
is started in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to scale.

Straight lines may some times appear jagged. All figure lie in a plane unless otherwise
indicated.
Question1

If –2<a<11 and 3<b<12, then which of the following is NOT true?
(A) 1<a+b<23
(B) -14<a-b<8
(C) -7<b-a<14
(D) 1<b+a<23
(E) -24<ab<132

Question 2

a, b, and c are integers and a < b < c. S is the set of all integers from a to b, inclusive. Q is the
set of all integers from b to c, inclusive. The median of set S is (3/4)b. The median of set Q is
(7/c. If R is the set of all integers from a to c, inclusive, what fraction of c is the median of set
R?

(A) 3/8
(B) 1/2
(C) 11/16
(D) 5/7
(E) 3/4

Question 3
a, b, and c are positive integers. If a, b, and c are assembled into the six-digit number abcabc,
which one of the following must be a factor of abcabc?

(A) 16
(B) 13
(C) 5
(D) 3
(E) none of the above

Question 4

The average of (54,820)
2
and (54,822)
2
=

(A) (54,821)
2

(B) (54,821.5)
2

(C) (54,820.5)
2

(D) (54,821)
2
+ 1
(E) (54,821)
2
– 1

Question 5
A certain club has exactly 5 new members at the end of its first week. Every subsequent
week, each of the previous week's new members (and only these members) brings exactly x new
members into the club. If y is the number of new members brought into the club during the
twelfth week, which of the following could be y?

(A)
(B)
(C) (D)
(E)
Question 6:
DATA SUFFICIENCY PROBLEM

Directions: The data sufficiency problem consists of a question and two statements, labeled (1)
and (2), in which certain data are given. You have to decide whether the data given in the
statements are sufficient for answering the question. Using the data given in the statements plus
your knowledge of mathematics and everyday facts (such as the number of days in July or the
meaning of counterclockwise), you must indicate whether

Choice: A statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to
answer the question asked;

Choice: B statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to
answer the question asked;

Choice: C BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question
asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient;

Choice: D EACH statement ALONE is suffi cient to answer the question asked;

Choice: E statements (1} and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question
asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.


x is a positive number. If 9x
+ 9x+1
+ 9x+2
+ 9x+3
+ 9x+4
+ 9x+5
= y, is y divisible by 5?

1) 5 is a factor of x.

2) x is an integer.


Question 7
If the range of the set of numbers {150, 90, 125, 110, 170, 155, x, 100, 140} is 95, which of the
following could be x?
(A) 80
(B) 85
(C) 95
(D) 125
(E) 185
Question 8

Frances can complete a job in 12 hours, and Joan can complete the same job in 8 hours.
Frances starts the job at 9 a.m., and stops working at 3 p.m. If Joan starts working at 4 p.m. to
complete the job, at what time is the job finished?
(A) 6 p.m.
(B) 7 p.m.
(C) 8 p.m.
(D) 10 p.m.
(E) 12 p.m.





DATA SUFFICIENCY PROBLEM

Directions: The data sufficiency problem consists of a question and two statements, labeled (1)
and (2), in which certain data are given. You have to decide whether the data given in the
statements are sufficient for answering the question. Using the data given in the statements plus
your knowledge of mathematics and everyday facts (such as the number of days in July or the
meaning of counterclockwise), you must indicate whether

Choice: A statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to
answer the question asked;

Choice: B statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to
answer the question asked;

Choice: C BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question
asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient;

Choice: D EACH statement ALONE is suffi cient to answer the question asked;

Choice: E statements (1} and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question
asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.







Question 9

A, B, C, D, and E are airline pilots with very busy travel schedules. Given that D is able to meet at
any time that B cannot meet, do the schedules of A, B, C, D, and E allow three of these five
individuals to meet together for two uninterrupted hours?

(1) Pilots A and C, who cannot meet together, are not able to end any meeting during the AM
hours of any weekday.

(2) Pilots B and E, who can never meet for longer than 2 uninterrupted hours, are only available
to meet for two straight hours starting at 10:30 PM on any weekday and not ending during the AM
hours of any weekend day.

Question 10.

1/212
+ 2/213
+ 3/214
+ 4/215
=

(A) 1/210

(B) 1/212

(C) 15/215

(D) 2/210

(E) 23/216


Question 11 11
+22
+33
+...+1010
is divided by 5. What is the remainder?

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) 4
Question 12
If n is an integer greater than 0, what is the remainder when 912n+3
is divided by 10?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 7
(E) 9

Question13
Each of 435 bags contains at least one of the following three items: raisins, almonds, and
peanuts. The number of bags that contain only raisins is 10 times the number of bags that contain
only peanuts. The number of bags that contain only almonds is 20 times the number of bags that
contain only raisins and peanuts. The number of bags that contain only peanuts is one-fifth the
number of bags that contain only almonds. 210 bags contain almonds. How many bags contain
only one kind of item?

(A) 256
(B) 260
(C) 316
(D) 320
(E) It cannot be determined from the given information.


Question 14
What is the probability that and are reciprocal fractions?

(1) v, w, y, and z are each randomly chosen from the first 100 positive integers.

(2) The product (u)(x) is the median of 100 consecutive integers.

Question 15

If n is an integer greater than 5.3, then n! must be divisible by which of the following numbers?
(A) 7
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 13
(E) 14

Question 16
what is population of the village
1. 7/11 of the village comprises of married people
2. 200 widows comprises 10% of the singles population

(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

Question 17
The sum of the ages of A, B and C is 137 years. What is C’s age
1. the sum of the ages of A and C is 91 years
2. the sum of the ages of B and C is 104 years

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)





Question 18
Is the number x is divisible by 9.
1. The number x can be obtained by taking the difference between a number and
another one obtained by reversing the digits.
2. The sum of the digits of x is divisible by 9.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)


Question 19
In an election how many votes are cast.
1. the winning candidate gets 54% of the total votes
2. the winning candidate wins by 800
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)



Question 20
Is y x
x
y
2 ) 1 (
2
? ?
1. 0 ? xy
2. 5 ? ? y x

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) (E)


Question 21
Is
x
x
1
?
1. x >0
2. x < 2
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)



Question 22
Is
5
1
? x
1. x is positive
2. 5
1
?
x

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)


Question 23.
Is
x x
b a ?
A. 0 , ? ? x b a
B. x x
b a
? ? ,
1 1


(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

Question 24

A printer numbered consecutively the pages of a book, beginning with 1 on the f irst page. In
numbering the pages, he had to print a total of 187 digits. Find the number of pages in
the book.
A) 99 B) 98 C) 96 D) 97 E) 95


Question 25
In a drawer of shirts, 8 r blue, 6 r green, and 4 r magenta. If Mason draws 2 shirts at random,
what is the probability that at least one of the shirts he draws will be blue?
(A) 25/153
(B) 28/153
(C) 5/17
(D) 4/9
(E) 12/17

Question 26

x
2
+2x-8 =
x
2
-6x+8

(A) 1
(B) -1
(C) x/3
(D) x+4
x-4
(E) x+8
x-8

Question 27
Which of the following CANNOT yield an integer when divided by 10?
(i) Product of two prime numbers
(ii) An integer less than 10
(iii) Sum of three consecutive integers
(iv) An odd integer
A. (i) & (iv) only
B. (ii) & (iv) only
C. (ii), (iii) & (iv) only
D. (iv) Only

Question 28
A number, K, is a positive integer with the special property that 3 times its unit is equal to 2 times
its 10 digit. How many such numbers exist between 10 & 99?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5


Question 29


If two digit integer M and N are positive and have same digits, but in reverse order, which of the
following cannot be the sum of M and N.

a) 181
b) 165
c) 121
d) 99
e) 44


Question 30
....

In the figure above, does x = 90?
(1) The length of AC is less than the length of BC.
(2) The length of AB is one-fourth the circumference of the circle.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

Question: 31
In a group of 8 semifinalists, all but 2 will advance to the final round. If in the final round only the
top 3 will be awarded medals, then how many groups of medal winners are possible?
(A) 20
(B) 56
(C) 120
(D) 560
(E) 720

Question 32
The marks scored by a student in three subjects are in the ratio of 4: 5: 6. If the candidate scored
an overall aggregate of 60% of the sum of the maximum marks and the maximum mark in all
three subjects is the same, in how many subjects did he score more than 60%?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) None of the subjects

Question 33
There are 6 boxes numbered 1, 2,...6. Each box is to be filled up either with a red or a green ball
in such a way that at least 1 box contains a green ball and the boxes containing green balls are
consecutively numbered. The total number of ways in which this can be done is
(A) 5 (B) 21 (C) 33 (D) 60
(E) 40

Question 34

A vendor sells 60 percent of apples he had and throws away 15 percent of the remainder. Next
day he sells 50 percent of the remainder and throws away the rest. What percent of his apples
does the vendor throw?
(A) 17 (B) 23
(C) 77 (D) None of these
(E) 75
35. The product of two positive numbers is p. If each of the numbers is increased by 2, the new
product is how much greater than twice the sum of the two original numbers?
(A) p-2
(B) p
(C) p+2
(D) p+4
(E) 2p+4

36. If p and q are integers, such that p<0<q, which of the following must be true?
I. 2p<2q
II. p2
<q2

III. p+q=0
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II and III

37. If 12(22)(35) is an integer, which of the following CANNOT be the value of p?
p
(A) 15
(B) 21
(C) 28
(D) 33
(E) 50

INTROVERT247:
Sent.

I also need it. rbakinyele@gmail.com tnks

Seunvense:
Sent.

daodurichard@gmail.com

Seunvense:
Sent.

seen...thanks

Graduate Management Admission Test (GMAT)

In the verbal section you will have 75 minutes to answer 41 questions.

11 of these questions are experimental and would not be counted towards your score.
There is no way to identify which questions are experimental as they are mixed in
randomly through out the section.

This section includes three types of questions: sentence correction, critical reading, and
reading comprehension. Sentence correction questions test your ability to spot
grammatical mistakes. The Critical reasoning questions test your ability to understand
and analyze arguments. And the reading comprehension tests your ability to find
information in a long passage.
One can calculate the exact answer for a math question but the credited answers for a
verbal question seem very subjective and arbitrary. Here an answer choice is correct
because it is better than other four answer choices.

The basic approach:

For sentence correction:

- to identify a grammar problem or rule – Eliminate answer choices containing that
error.
- Compare the remaining answers,- choose the best answer.

For Critical Reasoning :

- Break the argument in conclusion, premise and assumptions, - state the answer
in your words
- Eliminate the answer choices that do not match with your answer.

For reading Comprehension:

- Read the passage quickly to get the main idea, read and decipher the question
- Find the answer in the passage – write answer in your own words.
- Eliminate the answer choices that do not match your answer.


Best of luck
Verbal Section

This question presents a sentence, part of which or all of which is underlined. Beneath
the sentence you will find five ways of rephrasing the underlined part. The first of these
repeats the original; the other four are different. If you think the original is best, choose
option A, else pick one of the others.

1. John and Tim went to the bank and he made a deposit.
A. he
B. they
C. it
D. their E. you

2. Although the average Girl Scout joins the organization at age 14, they have
already been Brownies for several years.
A. they have already been Brownies
B. they were Brownies
C. she has already been a Brownie
D. she had already been a Brownie
E. she was in the Brownies

3. In 1980, the Netherlands agreed to limit fishing in certain Atlantic Ocean beds,
but in 1981, they terminated the agreement.
A. they terminated the agreement.
B. they decided to terminate the agreement.
C. it terminated the agreement.
D. it was terminated.
E. it decided the agreement was terminated.

4. While brokers, as a rule, are not permitted to know executive access codes, in
many instances they are widely known.
A. they are widely known
B. they are widely known to be
C. they are widely known by many
D. the codes are able to be widely known
E. the codes are widely known

5. Despite seeming tame and intelligent, the state troopers had no choice but to shoot
the loose Gorilla.
A. Despite seeming tame and intelligent
B. Despite a tame and intelligent appearance
C. Although appearing to be tame and intelligent
D. Although it seemed tame and intelligent
E. However tame and intelligent in appearance


6 . The number of workers have increased steadily each year.
A. have increased steadily
B. steadily have increased
C. have been increasing steadily
D. has increased steadily
E. has steadily been going through an increase

7. The commercial airliner flew too close to the military base, an act that the army
saw as a violation of its air space.

A.as
B. as if it was
C. to be
D. that it was
E. for


The questions in this group are based on the content of a passage. After reading
the passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all questions
following the passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.

8. For the past five years, US consumption of eggs has decreased. The National
Egg Council plans to reverse this trend by launching an advertising campaign
extolling the healthful benefits of eggs.

Which one of the following, if true, will provide the strongest support for the
National Egg Council’s plan?

A. Eggs are a good source of protein.
B. Many former egg eaters now make omelets using egg
substitutes.
C. Most people stopped eating eggs because they thought eggs
were unhealthy.
D. Eggs contain unhealthy levels of cholesterol.
E. Eggs substitute makers launched an extensive marketing
campaign six years ago.

9. In an effort to reduce the amount of fat and the number of calories that they
consume, many citizens of the United States are making significant changes in
their diets. For them staying in shape and looking fit now take precedence over
eating foods that are filling and that taste good. It is likely that if they maintain
these new priorities with consistent regard for other health issues, the length and
quality of their lives will increase significantly.

Which one of the following is an assumption upon which the argument is based?

A. Eating foods that are filling and tastes good is inconsistent with
staying in shape and looking fit.
B. Controlling the quality of one’s life requires more than mere
dietary adjustments.
C. A combination of diet and exercise is necessary if one wishes to
stay in shape and look fit.
D. Many citizens of the United States have only recently discovered
the importance of diet to living a longer, healthier life.
E. Staying in shape and looking good are current goals for most
citizens of the United States.

10. Singing in the Rain Umbrella Corp. plans to institute a marketing campaign in
which it sells umbrellas at the exits of subway stations during rainy weather. The
umbrellas will be sold at a price that is slightly higher than normal. The company
thinks the sales of these higher – priced umbrellas will be greater than normal
sales of umbrellas, because the purchasers of these umbrellas will be forced to
buy them if they do not want to get wet.

The author assumes which of the following about the purchasers of the umbrellas
in predicting the sales of the umbrellas?
A. Customers who do not feel immediate pressure to purchase will
not do so.
B. Normally priced umbrellas are not profitable for singing in the
Rain Umbrellas Corp.
C. Very few people buy Singing in the Rain’s normally priced
umbrellas.
D. Singing in the Rain Umbrellas Corp. will have to stop selling
normally priced umbrellas when it starts selling higher priced
umbrellas.
E. Most potential customers of Singing in the Rain’s higher priced
umbrellas will not have acquired an umbrella previously.

11. A leading cement manufacture has been having problems processing manufacturing
and delivery records since it expanded its operations. To solve this problem it plans to
install a new platform on its central computing system which will run its tracking program
five times faster than the current system does.

Which one of the following castes the most serious doubt on the manufacture’s
plan?

A. Not all computer platforms can make the company’s tracking programs
run more quickly
B. The cost of the new computer platform will require the cement
manufacture to raise prices for its products.
C. The cement company’s computer system does not have the capability to
run the new platform and cannot be updated.
D. The company has been increasing the sales of cement by 1.5 percent a
month for the past 18 months.
E. A completely new computer system could make the program run 6 times
faster than it does currently.




12. Critics insist that government regulation of business has made it more difficult for
American businesses to operate profitably and has destroyed their ability to compete
with foreign producers of consumer goods. This argument is not compelling.
Government regulation of business was never as active in this nation as it was between
the years 1975 and 1985, and in those years the average net worth of American family
increased more than it had in any previous decade.

The author’s argument would be most seriously weakened if it were true that

A. 80 percent of all businesses started during the decade 1975-1985 lost
money in their first year.
B. More businesses declared bankruptcy during the period 1975-1985 than
in any previous decade.
C. During the decade 1975-1985, America imported more consumer goods
than it exported. D. The increase in net worth of average American families during the years
1975-1985 was largely due to an increase in the value of residential
homes.
E. The average interest rate charged on business and home mortgage loans
was higher during the decade 1975-1985 than it had been in any previous
decade.


13. A recession is not caused by any economic force other than nation wide loss of
confidence. If the economy is perceived as being unstable, banks are
conservative in lending money, investors take fewer risks and hence economic
growth is slowed.

Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument above.

A. A recession is getting effected by the response of the Federal Reserve’s
setting of interest rates.
B. A recession can be brought on by the failure of a major bank that had been
loaning money.
C. Slowed economic growth is not the only result of a recession.
D. When investors begin taking greater risks it is enough to stimulate economic
growth.
E. It is a fallacy to assume that economic growth is necessary for economic
stability.


14. In an effort to increase revenues, Sky Air recently partnered with several airlines
to create a joint frequent-flier program. In the new program, miles earned on all
partner airlines can be combined for reward tickets valid on any airline in the
partnership. Sky Air’s CEO cites a recent increase in the number of passengers
on all the partner airlines as evidence that the new frequent-flier program is
having the desired effect. Industry analysts doubt the CEO’s claim.

Which of the following, if true, best supports the analysts’ positions?

A. Air travel tends to be seasonal, with more passengers traveling during
warmer months and holiday periods.
B. The recent increase in passenger rates for all the partner airlines was
predicted by the lowest rates of air travel in the last decade.
C. Many travelers achieved reward tickets more quickly under the new
frequent-flier program and redeemed them recently for free travel.
D. Travelers redeemed frequent-flier rewards on Sky Air’s partners more
frequently than on Sky Air.
E. A study of frequent-flier programs showed that they generally result in
increased long-term airline revenues.
















This question presents a sentence, part of which or all of which is underlined.
Beneath the sentence you will find five ways of rephrasing the underlined part.
The first of these repeats the original; the other four are different. If you think the
original is best, choose option A, else pick one of the others

15. Neither my mother nor my father, both of whom are English professors, agree
with my contention that James Joyce’s novel Ulysses is overrated.

A. Both of whom are English professors, agree with my contention that
James Joyce’s novel Ulysses is overrated.
B. Both of whom are English professors, agrees with my contention that
James Joyce’s novel Ulysses is overrated.
C. Both of whom are English professors, agree with my contention that
Ulysses, a novel by James Joyce is overrated.
D. Each of whom is an English professor, agree with my contention that
James Joyce’s novel Ulysses is overrated.
E. English professors the both of them agrees with my contention that
James Joyce’s novel Ulysses is overrated.

16. A number of military personnel who served in Operation Desert Storm has
encountered a series of unexplainable symptoms that were attributed to Gulf War
syndrome.

A. has encountered a series of unexplainable symptoms that were attributed
to
B. has unexplainably encountered a series of symptoms that have been
attributed as
C. have encountered a series of unexplained symptoms that have been
attributed as
D. have encountered a series of unexplainable symptoms that have been
attributed to
E. have encountered unexplainably a series of symptoms that were
attributed as

17. Although Smith once championed the charity, he changed his mind after journalist
linked its origin to a corrupt individual.
A. once championed the charity
B had once championed the charity
C has once championed the charity
D was a champion of the charity E championed the charity at one time

18. A swarm of desert honeybees, a phenomenon seen by few of the select scientists
and entomologists, occur when a portion of the colony leave the current nest to find a
new home.
A. few of the select scientists and entomologists, occur when a portion of the
colony leave
B. a select few scientists and entomologists, only occurs when portions of the
colony leaves
C very few selected scientists and entomologists, occur when portions of the
colony leave
D. only very few selected scientists and entomologists, occurs when a portion of
the colony leaves
E. only a select few scientists and entomologists, occurs when a portion of the
colony leaves

19. During the State of the Union address every February the president announced the
amount of the new programs the administration planned to create and the amounts of
money it invested in each one.
A. announced the amount of the new programs the administration planned to
create and the amounts of money it invested in each one
B. announced the amount of the new programs the administration had created
and the amount of money that was invested in each one
C. announces the number of the new programs the administration plans to create
and the amount of money to be invested in each one
D. announces the amount of the new programs created by the administration and
the amount of money invested in them
E. had announced the administration’s plans for a number of new programs and
the amounts of money that were to be invested in them

20.Of the numerous decisions facing the Supreme Court this term, the question of an
individual’s right to die is for certain the more perplexing.

A. the question of an individual’s right to die is for certain the more perplexing
B. it seems certain that the more perplexing is the question of an individual’s right
to die
C. the question of an individual’s right to die is certainly the most perplexing
D. it seems certain the question of an individual’s right to die is the most
perplexing
E. the question of an individual’s right to die is certainly the more perplexing

21. In response to losing a significant part of its market share to a competitor, the soft
drink company has cut costs by withholding executive bonuses, changed their
advertising agency, and have redesigned the company logo.
A. changed their advertising agency, and have
B. changing their advertising agency, as well as
C. has changed its advertising agency, and
D. and changed its advertising agency, and has
E. changed its advertising agency, and
22. Now even directors of off- Broadway productions, desperate for actors who are
talented, charismatic, and aspiring more to a solid career in the theater than to the
lucrative rewards and stardom proffered by movie moguls and studios, are turning to
independent casting directors for guidance in assembling their casts.

A. are talented, charismatic, and aspiring
B. are talented, who have charisma, and who are aspiring
C. have talent and are charismatic and aspire
D. are talented and have charisma, and whose aspirations are
E. are talented and charismatic, and who aspire

23. The Supreme Court can effectively rule on a case in two ways, either by
deciding to hear the case and handling down its judgment, or rather to simplify
refuse to hear the case at all.

A. either by deciding to hear the case and handing down its judgment, or
rather to simplify refuse
B. either by deciding to hear the case and handing down its judgment, or
by simplify refusing
C. by either deciding to hear the case and hand down its judgment or to
simplify refuse
D. to hear a case and to hand down its judgment, or to refuse simply
E. either by deciding to hear the case and hand down its judgment, or the
simple refuse

24. The establishment of land trusts in New England has been praised not
because of its restricting overdevelopment but because it allows the inheritance by
future generations of the property.

A. not because of its restricting overdevelopment but because it allows the
inheritance by future generations of
B. because of not only is restricting overdevelopment and also allows the
inheritance by future generations of
C. because it does not only restrict overdevelopment, it also allows future
generations for inheriting
D. because of not only the restrictions on over development but also
because future generations can inherit
E. Not only because it restricts overdevelopment but also because it
allows future generations to inherit


25. Some students of literary criticism consider the theories of Blaine to be a huge
advance in modern critical thinking and question the need to study the discounted
theories of Rauthe and Wilson.

A. to be a huge advance in modern critical thinking and question
B. as a huge advance in modern critical thinking and question
C. as being a huge advance in modern critical thinking and questioned
D. a huge advance in modern critical thinking and question
E. are a huge advance in modern critical thinking and questioned



26. One of the possible results of the further depletion of the ozone in the atmosphere
would be a sharp increase in the demand for sunscreens. Many of the ingredients in
sunscreens are natural, and the demand for these products will require strict
conservation laws. This will represent the victory for those who desire greater protection
for the environment.

Which one of the following best states the conclusion in the passage above?

A. Industries that produce ozone-depleting chemicals should be encouraged to
continue doing so.
B. Regulation of ozone-depleting chemicals should be handled on a federal level.
C. The natural ingredients in sunscreen products should be replaced by synthetic
substitutes.
D. The effects of ozone depletion on the environment are not categorically negative.
E. The few positive effects of ozone depletion are far outweighed by the myriad
negative effects.



TO BE CONTINUED>>>

CONTINUED>>>

28. Currently about 70 percent of all urban households recycle some portion of their
garbage, 25 percent more than did ten years ago. This increase can be
attributed , in part , to the fact that a larger portion of the population is now under
the age of 47.

Of the following, which can be most properly inferred from the passage
above?

A. Of those who currently recycle, at least 70 percent recycle less than 25
percent of what is potentially recyclable.
B. Younger people are generally more conscientious about waste disposal
than are older people. C. People under the age of 47 are more likely to recycle than are their older
counterparts.
D. The overall population has risen by at least 25 percent in the past ten
years.
E. People currently over the age of 47 recycled more often ten years ago.

29. State colleges have lower tuitions than do private colleges because many of
their operating costs are covered by federal and state funds.

Which of the following inferences is best supported by the statement made
above?

A. Private colleges have higher operating costs than do state
colleges.
B. Many more people matriculate at state colleges than do at
private colleges.
C. Tuition fees and operating costs are directly related.
D. the cost of attending state college is always more than the cost
of
attending private college.
E. If private colleges are to lower their tuitions , they must receive
outside support.


30. Many people feel that hard work deserves a reward. However, this is not true.
Hard work should be its own reward, because such work intrinsically gives the
worker satisfaction when it is performed satisfactorily.

The author of the argument draws his or her conclusion by

A. Claiming than what is commonly believed is false for that very
reason.
B. Pointing out the inconsistencies in a counterargument.
C. Challenging the definition of the word “reward” as something
extrinsic to a task.
D. Repeating a premise that was previously stated.
E. Allowing a counterclaim to weaken his or her argument.


31 . If we reduce the salaries of our employees, then profits will increase by 35 percent.
Because we must increase our profits, it is clear that employee salaries must be
reduced.

Which of the following most closely parallels the reasoning used in the argument
above?

A. If I eat less food, I will lose weight. Since I started skipping breakfast, I
have lost ten pounds.
B. If I work four more hours each week, I will earn enough money to afford
a new hobby. Because I would like a new hobby, I will collect coins. C. If god does not exist, then there is no basis for morality. Because some
actions are morally wrong, God must exist.
D. If there is an economic recession, then salaries will be reduced.
Because salaries are not decreasing, there is not an economic
recession.
E. If there were more commercials, the number of television watchers
would decline. Because the number of television watchers should be
reduced, the number of commercials should be increased.



This question presents a sentence, part of which or all of which is underlined.
Beneath the sentence you will find five ways of rephrasing the underlined part.
The first of these repeats the original; the other four are different. If you think
the original is best, choose option A, else pick one of the others


32. As we traveled the back roads of Arkansas, each of us were equipped with a
canteen, a knife, and a compass.
A. Each of us were equipped
B. Equipping ourselves
C. Every one of were equipped
D. Each of us was equipped
E. Equipped as we are


33. The best labor negotiators are the ones that have the ability of settling even the
most irreconci lable stalemates.
A. The ones that have the ability of settling even
B. Them that are able even to settle
C. Those who have the ability to settle even
D. Those that are able to even settle
E. The ones who have the ability of even settling

34. Many small companies expand their client bases not so much by aggressive
marketing as by networking and word of mouth.
A. So much by aggressive marketing as by
B. As much with marketing aggressively as with
C. Much by aggressive marketing that instead by
D. So aggressively with marketing but with
E. In marketing aggressively but rather in












































Reading Comprehension


The questions in this group are based on the content of a passage. After reading the
passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all questions following the
passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.

Until recently corporate ideology in the United States
has held that bigger is better. This traditional view of the
primacy of big, centralized companies is now being
challenged as some of the giants of American business
5. are being out formed by a new generation of smaller,
streamlined business. If it was the industrial revolutions
that spawned the area of massive industrialize companies,
then perhaps it is the information revolutions of the 1990s
that is spawning the area of the small company.
10. For most of this century, big companies dominated an
American business scene that that seemed to thrive on its own
Grandness of scale. The expansion westward, the growth
of railroad and steel industries, an almost limitless
supply of cheap raw materials, plus a populations boom
15.That provided an ever increasing demand for new products
(although not cheap source of labor) all coincided to
encourage the growth of large companies.

But rapid developments in the market place have begun
to change the accepted rules of business and have under-scored
20. the need for fast reaction times. Small companies without
huge overhead and inventory, can respond quickly to a
technologically advanced age in which new products
and technologies can become outmoded within a year
of their being brought to market.

25. Of course, successful emerging small companies face a
potential dilemma in that their very success will tend to turn
them into copies of the large corporate dinosaurs they are now
supplanting. To avoid this trap, small companies may look to
the example of several CEOs of large corporations who
30. have broken down their sprawling organizations into small
semi-independent divisions capable of making their way
into the twenty first century.

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
? Present evidence that resolves a contradiction in business theory
? Discuss reasons why an accepted business pattern is changing
? Describe a theoretical model and method whereby that model can be
tested.
? Argue that a traditional ideology deserve new attentions
? Resolve two conflicting explanations for a phenomenon

2. The author’s attitude toward emerging small companies is one of the
? Disappointment
? Optimism
? Uncertainty
? Criticism
? Elation

3. Which of the following best describes the organization of the first paragraph of
the passage?

? A conventional model is described and an alternative is introduced.
? An assertion is made and general supporting example is given.
? Two contradictory points of view are presented and evaluated.
? A historical overview is given to explain a phenomenon.
? A new theory is described and then qualified.

Passage 2


One recent example of industrial hyper growth has taken place in the
recycling industry, led by the rapid expansion of the recycled paper market.
Though many laws were enacted in the late 1980s to encourage
(and in some cases require) the collection of waste paper for recycling,
there were not, at that time, companies with sufficient capacity to recycle
it all. Consequently the collected paper accumulated in storage, usually
at the expense of the recycling companies, thereby adding to their overhead
and squeezing their already thin profit margins.

Today a different situation exists. Fifty-seven new paper mills have been
built since 1991, and of these, at least twenty-nine use recycled fiber.
This surge in capacity has resulted in a concurrent rise in profits. The price per
Ton of waste paper has quadrupled in the past year, as have the prices of
corrugated cardboard and used newsprint. Trash haulers have benefited from
these conditions by combining their trash hauling and recycling operations.

Recycling centers are connected both to the clients to whom they sell end-
products and to those from whom they collect refuse; thus, the company gets
paid twice for the same trash, once for hauling the waste and once for selling the
usable material. Industry profits have increased more than tenfold during this period. As
the industry has become more competitive, some haulers have chosen to rebate a
portion of this money to their clients in the hopes of ensuring their loyalty.

1. According to the passage, which of the following is a reason for the increase in
profits in the trash hauling business?

(A) Haulers' ability to sell both services and products.
(B) Money offered by haulers to preferred customers.
(C) Foresight exhibited by the leaders of the industry.
(D) Haulers' willingness to adapt technology to a changing industry.
(E) Passage of stricter environmental legislation.

2. It can be inferred from the passage that the price of waste paper
(A) will increase steadily over the next few years
(B) will increase as more companies get involved in the industry
(C) is closely related to the availability of trash haulers
(D) is not as important to trash haulers as the price they charge for hauling waste
(E) is sometimes set by the weight of the product

3. The author of the passage would most likely agree with which of the following?

A. Competition between trash haulers and recyclers will prevent the recycled paper
industry from reaching its full economic potential.
B. Pressure from anti-environmental groups has increased pressure on the government
to oppose recycled paper initiatives.
C. The recycled paper industry may continue to grow at its present rate as long as the
industry remains profitable. D. The profit-seeking of recyclers have overshadowed environmental concerns in the
recycled paper industry.
E. Government negligence prevented the recycled paper industry from becoming
successful until the early 1990’s.


4. According to the passage, all of the following are results of the increase in the number
of new mills using recycled finer except
A. The price of waste paper has risen dramatically.
B. Trash haulers are earning increased revenues.
C. Profits at recycling centers have increased more than tenfold.
D. The price of corrugated cardboard has risen.
E. Trash haulers have been forced to compete with recyclers.

Pls i nid d Gmat pdf file.....Samuelgboyegajoseph@gmail.com[quote author=thankyouJesus post=40101644][/quote]Pls i nid d Gmat pdf file.....Samuelgboyegajoseph@gmail.com

ThankyouJesus whats up?



This second list to me seems like eternity, I have this feeling that it would be released by 2nd week of December.

cassyrooy:
ThankyouJesus whats up?



This second list to me seems like eternity, I have this feeling that it would be released by 2nd week of December.

No light for my area, I go devour the questions anytime light show.

thankyouJesus:
No light for my area, I go devour the questions anytime light show.

I'll be waiting for that.


I'll try to post the other contents of the mail tomorrow.


Thanks.

Seunvense:
Sent.

pls i'm intrested also #miamilexican@gmail.com

cassyrooy:
Thankyou.Jesus whats up?



This second list to me seems like eternity, I have this feeling that it would be released by 2nd week of December.

Aaah..u want peeps to die of frustration

kenaz:

Aaah..u want peeps to die of frustration

Okay lemme paraphrase that.



All things being equal, check back after New Year for Supplementary List for UniIbadan 2015/16 Admission Excercise.

Seunvense:
Sent.

henryogunrinde@gmail.com

Do u guys knw we wil resume ....tanks

Thollulope:
Do u guys knw we wil resume ....tanks

February 13th 2016.

GdexFolami:
folamimichael49@gmail.com.....thanks bro

HolluwaTosin56:
henryogunrinde@gmail.com

kunlexze:

pls i'm intrested also #miamilexican@gmail.com

DOCODYSSEY:
Pls i nid d Gmat pdf file.....Samuelgboyegajoseph@gmail.comPls i nid d Gmat pdf file.....Samuelgboyegajoseph@gmail.com

joyrichy:
daodurichard@gmail.com

Kingdomdaughter:

I also need it.
rbakinyele@gmail.com
tnks

Sent.

11michael:
February 13th 2016.

tanks.....is it on ui portal
i wanna confirm it to my parents at home

Bhuumhite:
bunmiaransiola@gmail.com...thanks

salamibalqis@gmail.com......i also need d gmat tnx

INTROVERT247:
I don't think you guys can apply for the scholarship now since you haven't resume as 100 level student.

The questions will comprises mathematics,aptitude test(verbal and quantitative) and english language. You can start practising now with gmat.

Mention me with your email if you need gmat.

salamibalqis@gmail.com
tnx

kenaz: