truthmans2012:
Jesus had dismissed the Quran and Islam with this singular Biblical verse:

And this gospel of the kingdom will be preached in the whole world as a testimony to all nations,
and then the end will come (Mathew 24:14).

It is the Gospel of Jesus God expects to be preached in the WHOLE WORLD till the end of the world. Islam is not from God.

Auki:


How do we deal with.

Where is the Original Gospel?

How do we deal with contradictions and obvious insertion in the Bible?

How many book should we accept as part of the Bible?

How do we deal with immoral teaching like incest or God wrestling with Jacob, Trinity and other weird stories in the Bible?

And the Gospel should have specifically forewarned Mankind about Islam, Muhammad (peace be on him) since God is the knower of past, present and future

truthmans2012:
Jesus had dismissed the Quran and Islam with this singular Biblical verse:

And this gospel of the kingdom will be preached in the whole world as a testimony to all nations,
and then the end will come (Mathew 24:14).

It is the Gospel of Jesus God expects to be preached in the WHOLE WORLD till the end of the world. Islam is not from God.

Auki:


Reconcile with Mathew 15: 24 and 24:14

But he (Jesus) answered, "I wasn't sent to anyone but the lost sheep of the house of Israel."

Abdulgaffar22:

Question one: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did peter tell Cornelius and his households that it is still unlawful for the Jews to visit the gentiles (Acts 10:28), many years after Jesus’ ascension to heaven? Was peter not aware of the Jesus’ new command of preaching to all the nations?
Question two: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did other apostles have to criticize Peter and become astonished when they heard that some Gentiles had received the word of God through the hand of Peter (Acts 11: 1-3, 18)? This incident took place many years after Jesus’ departure.
Question three: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did Peter have to justify his preaching to those gentiles using his vision to convince the other apostles instead of simply reminding them about the new command of preaching to all the nations (Acts 11: 4-18)?
Question four: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did James still address his epistle to twelve tribes of Israel only i:e the Jews, and not to the gentiles (James 1:1)?
Question five: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did Peter also address his epistle only to the exiles of dispersion (i.e. the Jews) scattered throughout certain provinces and not to the gentiles (1 Peter 1:1).
Question six: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why would these apostles be judging only the twelve tribes of Israel in the new world and not judging the Gentiles(Matthew19:28)?
Question seven: if the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the gospel to all the nations of the world, why did Peter and his associates still agree to limit their ministry to the people of circumcision i.e. the Jews; leaving the work of Christianizing the gentiles only to Paul and his followers (Galatians 2:7-9, Acts 15:2, 4, 12, Acts 21:17-19)?
Question eight: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the gospel to all nations of the world, why was it that, after the book of Acts, all the letters specifically addressed to the gentiles were written by Paul and not by the original apostles of Jesus (Romans 1:1, 1stCorinthians 1:1, 2nd Corinthians 1:1, Galatians 1:1, Ephesians 1:1, Philippians 1:1, Colossians 1:1, etc.).
Question nine: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why did Paul repeatedly speak as if he was the only one authorized to preach the Gospel to the gentiles(Galatians 2:8, Romans 15:15-18, Romans 11:13, 1st Timothy 2:7, Acts 9:15, 2nd Timothy 1:11, Ephesians 3:.
Question ten: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why did disciples who were under the authority of the apostles still preach the gospel to none except the Jews even after the persecution that followed the killing of Stephen(Acts 11:19)? Of course, the killing of Stephen took place after Jesus ascension to heaven (Acts 7: 55-58).
All the questions asked above are enough to prove that Jesus and his apostles were only commanded to preach to the Jews (i:e the Israelites) and the new command of preaching to all the nations of the world in Matthew 28:19 is a forgery. After Jesus ascension to heaven, Jesus’ apostles understood the command of not preaching to the gentiles so well that even under intense persecution, they refused to leave Jerusalem (Acts 8:1). In fact, those disciples under the authority of the Jesus’ apostles who were forced to leave Jerusalem preached the gospel message to none except the Jews (Acts 11:19) and the Hellenists (Acts 11:20).Hellenists are the Greek-speaking Jews living in Greece. King James Version of the Bible called them Grecians (Acts 11:20 KJV) and New international version called them Greeks (Acts 11:20 NIV). But International standard version of the Bible reveal their true identity by calling them Hellenistic Jews (Acts 11:20 ISV). Ellicott and John-gill’s commentaries on this very verse (Acts 11:20) also confirm that these people were most likely to be Jews. You can Google search for parallel verses of Acts 11:20 on the internet to confirm all these facts. All the incidents mentioned in the questions asked above took place after Jesus has ascended to heaven. They all point to the fact that the apostles knew nothing about the new command of preaching to all the nations of the world in Matthew 28:19. The preaching of Peter to Cornelius and his households was an exception and one-time event. Peter’s initial response to those gentiles was rejection (Acts 10:25-28). We have no record that Peter evangelized another gentile. One incident does not constitute a ministry. In the book of Acts, we read plainly of Paul’s travels through Cyprus, Asia Minor, Greece and Italy. But the movements of the original apostles, who walked, talked, prayed, ate and slept with Jesus are nowhere to be found. When Paul and his followers preached the gospel at Rome, where were Peter and other apostles? This proves beyond any reasonable doubt that Matthew 28:19 and other similar verses like it; where the original apostles were supposedly commanded by Jesus to preach the gospel to all the nations of the world are not authentic but later inserted into the text of the New Testament. In fact, if it was already in the divine plan that ‘the command of not preaching to the gentiles’ in Matthew 10:5-6 would later be cancelled and replaced by new command of preaching to all the nations as spuriously stated in Matthew 28:19, then Jesus statement directed to that Canaanite woman in Matthew 15:24 should have been: “IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES” or something similar in meaning rather than “I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. Besides, the fact that Jesus later answered that Canaanite woman(Matthew 15:28) help us to know that there was no any strong reason preventing Jesus from attending to her in the first instance other than the fact that Jesus and his apostles were sent only to the Israelites.(i:e the Jews).The spreading of Christianity throughout the world of Gentiles was majorly due to the activities of Paul and his followers (Galatians 2:7-9, Romans 15:16, Ephesians 3:1-, and not by the chosen apostles of Jesus who spent most of their life time in Jerusalem. This is the reason why many unbiased Bible scholars confessed that the real founder of Christianity is Paul. Therefore, it is no longer a great surprise when we read in the Bible that the word “Christian” was first invented in Antioch by Paul and his associates (Acts 11:26) and not in Jerusalem by the original Jesus’ apostles

truthmans2012:
Jesus had dismissed the Quran and Islam with this singular Biblical verse:

And this gospel of the kingdom will be preached in the whole world as a testimony to all nations,
and then the end will come (Mathew 24:14).

It is the Gospel of Jesus God expects to be preached in the WHOLE WORLD till the end of the world. Islam is not from God.

GBAM....YOU HIT THE NAIL RIGHT IN THE HEAD AGAIN WAO. 1000 LIKES

Auki:
Worth reading and worth reflecting indeed.

truthmans2012:
Jesus had dismissed the Quran and Islam with this singular Biblical verse:

And this gospel of the kingdom will be preached in the whole world as a testimony to all nations,
and then the end will come (Mathew 24:14).

It is the Gospel of Jesus God expects to be preached in the WHOLE WORLD till the end of the world. Islam is not from God.

Plappvillemoi:
OP, truthman2012 is here. You can't deceive the week minded..

Question one: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did peter tell Cornelius and his households that it is still unlawful for the Jews to visit the gentiles (Acts 10:28), many years after Jesus’ ascension to heaven? Was peter not aware of the Jesus’ new command of preaching to all the nations?

Question two: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did other apostles have to criticize Peter and become astonished when they heard that some Gentiles had received the word of God through the hand of Peter (Acts 11: 1-3, 18)? This incident took place many years after Jesus’ departure.

Question three: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did Peter have to justify his preaching to those gentiles using his vision to convince the other apostles instead of simply reminding them about the new command of preaching to all the nations (Acts 11: 4-18)?

Question four: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did James still address his epistle to twelve tribes of Israel only i:e the Jews, and not to the gentiles (James 1:1)?

Question five: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did Peter also address his epistle only to the exiles of dispersion (i.e. the Jews) scattered throughout certain provinces and not to the gentiles (1 Peter 1:1).

Question six: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why would these apostles be judging only the twelve tribes of Israel in the new world and not judging the Gentiles(Matthew19:28)?

Question seven: if the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the gospel to all the nations of the world, why did Peter and his associates still agree to limit their ministry to the people of circumcision i.e. the Jews; leaving the work of Christianizing the gentiles only to Paul and his followers (Galatians 2:7-9, Acts 15:2, 4, 12, Acts 21:17-19)?

Question eight: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the gospel to all nations of the world, why was it that, after the book of Acts, all the letters specifically addressed to the gentiles were written by Paul and not by the original apostles of Jesus (Romans 1:1, 1stCorinthians 1:1, 2nd Corinthians 1:1, Galatians 1:1, Ephesians 1:1, Philippians 1:1, Colossians 1:1, etc.).

Question nine: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why did Paul repeatedly speak as if he was the only one authorized to preach the Gospel to the gentiles(Galatians 2:8, Romans 15:15-18, Romans 11:13, 1st Timothy 2:7, Acts 9:15, 2nd Timothy 1:11, Ephesians 3: cool

Question ten: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why did disciples who were under the authority of the apostles still preach the gospel to none except the Jews even after the persecution that followed the killing of Stephen(Acts 11:19)? Of course, the killing of Stephen took place after Jesus ascension to heaven (Acts 7: 55-58).

Abdulgaffar22:

Question one: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did peter tell Cornelius and his households that it is still unlawful for the Jews to visit the gentiles (Acts 10:28), many years after Jesus’ ascension to heaven? Was peter not aware of the Jesus’ new command of preaching to all the nations?
Question two: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did other apostles have to criticize Peter and become astonished when they heard that some Gentiles had received the word of God through the hand of Peter (Acts 11: 1-3, 18)? This incident took place many years after Jesus’ departure.
Question three: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did Peter have to justify his preaching to those gentiles using his vision to convince the other apostles instead of simply reminding them about the new command of preaching to all the nations (Acts 11: 4-18)?
Question four: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did James still address his epistle to twelve tribes of Israel only i:e the Jews, and not to the gentiles (James 1:1)?
Question five: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did Peter also address his epistle only to the exiles of dispersion (i.e. the Jews) scattered throughout certain provinces and not to the gentiles (1 Peter 1:1).
Question six: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why would these apostles be judging only the twelve tribes of Israel in the new world and not judging the Gentiles(Matthew19:28)?
Question seven: if the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the gospel to all the nations of the world, why did Peter and his associates still agree to limit their ministry to the people of circumcision i.e. the Jews; leaving the work of Christianizing the gentiles only to Paul and his followers (Galatians 2:7-9, Acts 15:2, 4, 12, Acts 21:17-19)?
Question eight: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the gospel to all nations of the world, why was it that, after the book of Acts, all the letters specifically addressed to the gentiles were written by Paul and not by the original apostles of Jesus (Romans 1:1, 1stCorinthians 1:1, 2nd Corinthians 1:1, Galatians 1:1, Ephesians 1:1, Philippians 1:1, Colossians 1:1, etc.).
Question nine: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why did Paul repeatedly speak as if he was the only one authorized to preach the Gospel to the gentiles(Galatians 2:8, Romans 15:15-18, Romans 11:13, 1st Timothy 2:7, Acts 9:15, 2nd Timothy 1:11, Ephesians 3:.
Question ten: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why did disciples who were under the authority of the apostles still preach the gospel to none except the Jews even after the persecution that followed the killing of Stephen(Acts 11:19)? Of course, the killing of Stephen took place after Jesus ascension to heaven (Acts 7: 55-58).
All the questions asked above are enough to prove that Jesus and his apostles were only commanded to preach to the Jews (i:e the Israelites) and the new command of preaching to all the nations of the world in Matthew 28:19 is a forgery. After Jesus ascension to heaven, Jesus’ apostles understood the command of not preaching to the gentiles so well that even under intense persecution, they refused to leave Jerusalem (Acts 8:1). In fact, those disciples under the authority of the Jesus’ apostles who were forced to leave Jerusalem preached the gospel message to none except the Jews (Acts 11:19) and the Hellenists (Acts 11:20).Hellenists are the Greek-speaking Jews living in Greece. King James Version of the Bible called them Grecians (Acts 11:20 KJV) and New international version called them Greeks (Acts 11:20 NIV). But International standard version of the Bible reveal their true identity by calling them Hellenistic Jews (Acts 11:20 ISV). Ellicott and John-gill’s commentaries on this very verse (Acts 11:20) also confirm that these people were most likely to be Jews. You can Google search for parallel verses of Acts 11:20 on the internet to confirm all these facts. All the incidents mentioned in the questions asked above took place after Jesus has ascended to heaven. They all point to the fact that the apostles knew nothing about the new command of preaching to all the nations of the world in Matthew 28:19. The preaching of Peter to Cornelius and his households was an exception and one-time event. Peter’s initial response to those gentiles was rejection (Acts 10:25-28). We have no record that Peter evangelized another gentile. One incident does not constitute a ministry. In the book of Acts, we read plainly of Paul’s travels through Cyprus, Asia Minor, Greece and Italy. But the movements of the original apostles, who walked, talked, prayed, ate and slept with Jesus are nowhere to be found. When Paul and his followers preached the gospel at Rome, where were Peter and other apostles? This proves beyond any reasonable doubt that Matthew 28:19 and other similar verses like it; where the original apostles were supposedly commanded by Jesus to preach the gospel to all the nations of the world are not authentic but later inserted into the text of the New Testament. In fact, if it was already in the divine plan that ‘the command of not preaching to the gentiles’ in Matthew 10:5-6 would later be cancelled and replaced by new command of preaching to all the nations as spuriously stated in Matthew 28:19, then Jesus statement directed to that Canaanite woman in Matthew 15:24 should have been: “IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES” or something similar in meaning rather than “I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. Besides, the fact that Jesus later answered that Canaanite woman(Matthew 15:28) help us to know that there was no any strong reason preventing Jesus from attending to her in the first instance other than the fact that Jesus and his apostles were sent only to the Israelites.(i:e the Jews).The spreading of Christianity throughout the world of Gentiles was majorly due to the activities of Paul and his followers (Galatians 2:7-9, Romans 15:16, Ephesians 3:1-, and not by the chosen apostles of Jesus who spent most of their life time in Jerusalem. This is the reason why many unbiased Bible scholars confessed that the real founder of Christianity is Paul. Therefore, it is no longer a great surprise when we read in the Bible that the word “Christian” was first invented in Antioch by Paul and his associates (Acts 11:26) and not in Jerusalem by the original Jesus’ apostles

truthmans2012:
When Yahweh had been God to the Jews for ages, what was the religion of the Arabs at that time?

Auki:


How do we deal with.

Where is the Original Gospel?

How do we deal with contradictions and obvious insertion in the Bible?

How many book should we accept as part of the Bible?

How do we deal with immoral teaching like incest or God wrestling with Jacob, Trinity and other weird stories in the Bible?

And the Gospel should have specifically forewarned Mankind about Islam, Muhammad (peace be on him) since God is the knower of past, present and future.

Abdulgaffar22:
Just one verse from Jesus is enough to destroy all your baseless assertion.Jesus said; I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (MATTHEW 15:24). If the command of not preaching to the gentiles in Matthew 10:5-6 would later be cancelled in accordance with the divine plan,then Jesus statement in Matthew 15:24 should have been; IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES. stylishly, you divert our attention from the main topicl of the post.This question still remain unanswered: WHY WOULD GOD ALLOW A LIAR TO IMPERSONATE HIM FOR GOOD 23 YEARS AND STILL ALLOW THE WORD OF SUCH IMPERSONATOR TO BE PROTECTED FROM DESTRUCTION SINCE 1430 YEARS AGO TILL TODAY? YET HE DID NOT EVEN ALLOW HANANIAH TO LIVE FOR JUST ONE YEAR(Jeremiah 28:1-17).We have already read that a liar can impersonate Jesus( Matthew 24:4-5,23-24).Again we have read how God dealt with Hananiah, the impersonator of God. Therefore, relying on these two facts, we can say conveniently that; whenever there is contradiction between the word of Jesus in the Bible and words (like verses of Qur'an) which appear to becoming directly from God's mouth, then it is better to give preference for the words that appear to be coming from God's mouth over the words reported to have said by Jesus. The reason is that Jesus can be impersonated (Matthew 24:4-5,24) while God can not be impersonated (Jeremiah 28:1-17,Psalm 101:7) for long period of time. Therefore when a verse coming directly from God's mouth says Qur'an is from Him (Qur'an 2:40-41) and the same Qur'an says Jesus was sent only to the Israelites (Qur'an 61:6, 3:49) and Jesus himself saidand si in Matthew 15:24, is not better to reject supposed word of jesus in Matthew 28:19 and similar verses like it

Plappvillemoi:
OP, truthman2012 is here. You can't deceive the week minded..

Abdulgaffar22:
If the Christians insist that the original author of Qur’an is not God, then they must believe its author to be a great liar and impersonator who spoke in the name and personality of God. The reason is that Qur’an contains many verses which appear to be coming directly from God’s mouth. Example of such verses are; “O children of Israel! Remember My special favor which I bestowed upon you, and fulfill your covenant with Me as I fulfill My covenant with you, and fear none but Me. And believe in what I have sent down ( i:e this Qur’an) confirming that which is with you, and be not the first to reject it, nor sell My verses for a small price; and fear Me, and Me alone(Qur’an 2:40-41)”. And that was Our proof which We gave to Abraham against his people. We raise whom We will in degrees. Certainly your Lord is All-Wise, All-Knowing. And We bestowed upon him Isaac and Jacob, each of them We guided. And before him We guided Noah, and among his progeny David, Solomon, Job, Joseph, Moses and Aaron. Thus do We reward the good doers. And Zachariah, and John and Jesus and Elias, all in the ranks of the righteous. And Ishmael and Elisha, and Jonah and Lot; each one of them We preferred above the nations. And also some of their fathers, and their progeny and their brethren, We chose them, and We guided them to a straight path. This is the guidance of God with which He guides whomsoever He wills of His servants. But if they had joined in worship others with God, all their deeds would have been of no benefit to them. They are whom We gave the book, and authority and prophet hood…They are those whom God had guided. So follow their guidance (Qur’an 6:84-90). You can see that the first person pronouns like “I”, “My”, “Me”, “Our” and “We” in these verses can never be referred to any other person except God. Therefore, anybody who denies the Qur’an as the word of God must compulsorily believe its author to be a great impersonator of God. Yet any sane person that just makes up his mind to impersonate God and deliberately lie against Him must have been enticed and misled by Satan? But how could Satan have enticed and misled a person to guide the idol-worshippers in the ancient Mecca to the idea of believing in one God and all biblical prophets including Jesus Christ? Do you think God of truth and wisdom would allow any deliberate liar to impersonate Him and then also allow such impersonator to praise all the Biblical prophets in the way the author of Qur’an has done? Again, how could God have left such a great liar and impersonator to survive for good twenty-three years and also allow his book to be protected from destruction since one thousand four hundred and thirty years ago till today? The reason why God permit the other religions like Buddhism, Taoism, Confucianism etc and their scriptures to exist is because their founders only stood out as spiritual teachers. They never claim that their scriptures came from God of Israel. Their scriptures do not contain words which appear to be COMING DIRECTLY FROM GOD’S MOUTH OF ISRAEL. But Qur’an is totally different. Qur’an contains many verses which appear to be coming directly from God’s mouth of Israel. Examples are quoted above. So Qur’an is unique in its claim as being the word of God. Therefore, to believe that Qur’an is not authored by God create more problems for the Christians than it really solves! They have to explain why God would allow a liar to impersonate him for good 23 years and also allow his book to be protected from destruction since 1430 years ago till today. Yet, God did not allow Hananiah, who also lied against Him, to even live for just a year (Jeremiah 28:1-17). If God Almighty could allow any deliberate liar to impersonate Him perfectly and also allow the word of such impersonator to be protected from destruction since 1,430 years ago till today, then on what basis could any rational person distinguish such fake word of God from true word of God? Obviously, there would be no any difference between the two. God may allow anybody to write or speak about Him as you may also allow your friend to write or speak about you. But if you as a truthful person would never allow your friend- talk less of your enemy- to impersonate you in order to deceive some innocent people, then why do you think the God of truth and wisdom would allow any deliberate liar to impersonate Him and also allow such a great impersonator to praise His biblical prophets especially when God declare as follows; How can I let myself be defamed? I will not yield My glory to another (Isaiah 48:11). What kind of defamation is greater than God to allow a deliberate liar to impersonate Him? Has God not yielded His glory to another if He allowed a deliberate liar to impersonate Him and also allow such impersonator to praise all the Biblical prophets in the way the author of Quran has done and then still allow the word of such impersonator to be safe-guarded from destruction as prophesied in Qur’an 15:9 as follows: Surely, We have revealed the reminder and We will most surely be its guardian. In fact, God deliberately spare the life of His prophet till concluding verse of his mission was revealed to him where God Almighty declare as follows: This day, I have perfected your religion for you, and I have completed My favor upon you, and I have chosen for you Islam as your religion(Qur’an 5:3). If the prophet was a great impersonator and great fabricator against God, then why would God have to wait for 23 years till this concluding verse of his mission was fabricated in His name? If God would allow a liar to impersonate Him, then He should have informed us in the previous scriptures before the Qur’an just like Jesus informed us in Matthew 24:4-5, 23-24 that many shall come in his name and shall deceive many. Therefore a liar can impersonate Jesus or any other prophet of God. But a liar cannot impersonate God for long period of time and still remain alive (Jeremiah 28:1-17, Psalm 101:7).
Another relevant verses in the Bible to this topic of God's impersonation is Deuteronomy 18:18-22 where God declare that the only condition to reject a prophet who speaks in God's name is when all the predictions and prophecies he made in the name of God do not come to pass or come true. But Qur'an still pass this test. One of the great prophecy is that Qur'an would be protected from destruction (Qur'an 15:9). Another great prophecy is that prophet Muhammad (pbuh) would be highly famous and frequently mentioned throughout the world(Qur'an 94:4). Another prophecy is that Qur'an is made easy for memorization(Qur'an 54:17,22).All these prophecies are known to be true.