Did Jesus recognise Islam or Muhammad? I think the answer is "no".

Jesus in his messages referred to Abraham, Moses, Elijah and other key prophets in the Bible. Even though Muhammad had not come, would Jesus not talk about him, a key figure like him in human history? A man that would make a change for God's worship.

If truly Abraham was the one who built Kaaba, would Jesus not have told the Jews about it? Would Jesus not go there to worship as he did in the Synagogue. One of the reasons the Jews and the Christians didn't believe Muhammad in his time was the claim that Abraham built Kaaba. The Israelites were not told by their ancestors that Abraham, their father, went to Mecca and built Kaaba there. Why would they believe in claim they knew quite well was untrue.

None of the prophets in the Bible referred to Kaaba or went there. If Kaaba had been existing since the time of Abraham as a house of worship, would not the prophets go and worship there? There is no proof that God's people were going to Mecca for worship other than idol worshipers.

It was alleged that the Kaaba was built by the Yemenites for their idols and Muhammad himself said something relating to that:

I heard Allah’s Apostle saying, “Pride and arrogance are characteristics of the rural bedouins while calmness is found among the owners of sheep. Eeman is Yemenite, and wisdom is also Yemenite i.e. the Yemenites are well-known for their true belief and wisdom).” Abu ‘Abdullah (Al-Bukhari) said, “Yemen was called so because it is situated to the right of the Ka’ba, and Sham was called so because it is situated to the left of the Ka’ba.”

~Saheeh Al-Bukhaari, Book of the Virtues of the Prophet and His Companions, Hadeeth No. 3261

This is a clear proof that Jesus didn't recognise Islam and Muhammad.

Jesus said "And this Gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in ALL the WORLD as a witness to all NATIONS and then the END shall come" (Mat. 24:14).

The Bible passage teaches that Jesus expected the Gospel to be preached throughout the world (Arab nations inclusive) from his time till the end of the world. This means he has no hand in the coming of Islam and Muhammad.

We can actually guess who sent Islam from the way the Qur'an speaks, denying many truths as recorded in the Bible.

Jesus came to bring peace into the world. He said if you are slapped on the right cheek, turn the left also. But Islam came reintroducing violence and said "Fighting is prescribed for Muslims (Quran 2:216). Why would God change from peace to violence?

Come to the true God through Jesus. He said I'm the Way, the Truth and the Life, nobody can come unto God but through me (John 14:6). Till today, Muslims still pray five times daily including asking for the Way. The Muslims of old did the same and died asking for the Way, they do the same today and keep asking endlessly for the Way. Jesus is the Way they are yet to discover. There is no other Way. May God have mercy on them.

.

Heaven will rejoice if our muslim friends would reason and come to Jesus. Reject being deceived. How long will you continue to pray for the Way that is already in front of you? As if that is not enough, the Quran says all Muslims are destined for hellfire immediately at death but Jesus says "I have come to give eternal life, not helffire

Quran 3:185] Every soul will taste of death. And ye will be paid on the Day of Resurrection only that which ye have fairly earned. Whoso is removed from the Fire and is made to enter paradise, he indeed is triumphant. The life of this world is but comfort of illusion.

The truth is: Nobody who enters hellfire will be removed. If a person is qualified for hell, what will he do in hell to qualify for heaven? And besides, Muhammad in his one night in heaven said he saw some of the Bible prophets in heaven. The question therefore is why are they in heaven and not in hell waiting for the Day of Resurrection to be removed to heaven as the Quran asserts?

Jesus said "The thief comes only to steal and kill and destroy; I have come that they may have life, and have it to the full.(John 10:10). Jesus promise for his followers is heaven and they will not have to stop-over in hell.

.

Jesus said; I WAS SENT ONLY TO LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 15:24) Again Jesus commanded his twelve apostles as follows; THESE TWELVE JESUS SENT FORTH, AND COMMANDED THEM, SAYING, GO NOT INTO THE WAY OF THE GENTILES, AND INTO ANY CITY OF THE SAMARITANS ENTER YE NOT: BUT GO RATHER TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 10:5-6). This further corroborates the fact that Jesus was sent ONLY to the Israelites. However, many of the Christians believe that this command of "NOT PREACHING TO THE GENTILES" was later cancelled and replaced by the new command of preaching to all the nations JUST BEFORE Jesus ascended to heaven: 1. Matthew 28:19; "Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit". 2. Mark 16.15; “Go into all the world and preach the gospel to all creation.” 3. Acts 1.8 ; "and you will be my witnesses in Jerusalem, in all Judea and Samaria, and to the ends of the earth.” 4. Luke 24.47; “that repentance for forgiveness of sins should be proclaimed in His name to all the nations, beginning from Jerusalem.” Therefore, it seems from these four verses that the apostles of Jesus were NOW FREE TO VISIT THE GENTILES AND PREACH THE GOSPEL TO ALL THE NATIONS OF THE WORLD. But was it REALLY TRUE that the original apostles of Jesus were NOW FREE TO VISIT THE GENTILES AND PREACH THE GOSPELS TO ALL THE NATIONS OF THE WORLD ? If this is true, then why did Peter utter the statement below MANY YEARS AFTER Jesus' departure from this world? "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN. So when I was sent for, I came without raising any objection. May I ask why you sent for me? (Acts 10:28-29 NIV). Was Peter NOT aware that they were now FREE to visit the gentiles and preach the gospel to all the nations of the world? Some of the Christians want to argue that the reason why Peter said: "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE" is because he has forgotten the Jesus'new command of preaching to all the nations of the world. But if this is true, then why did remaining Jewish believers in Christ criticize Peter on the SAME ISSUE OF VISITING AND ASSOCIATING WITH GENTILES on his return to Jerusalem as the following passage revealed ? Acts 11 New Living Translation (NLT) "Soon the news reached the apostles and other believers in Judea that the Gentiles had received the word of God. But when Peter arrived back in Jerusalem, THE JEWISH BELIEVERS CRITICIZED HIM. “YOU ENTERED THE HOME OF THE GENTILES AND EVEN ATE WITH THEM!” (Acts 11:1-3 NLT). Have they also forgotten the Jesus'new command of preaching all the nations of the world? If the other Jewish believers in Christ do not critize Peter on his arrival to Jerusalem ON THE SAME ISSUE OF VISITING AND ASSOCIATING WITH GENTILES as shown above, then we may think that it was Peter that was saying nonsense when he said "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. (Acts 10:28).The second part of the Peter's statement "BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN" is only referring to the "VISION" he experienced just before the arrival of the men sent by Cornelius (See Acts 10:1-28) . The statement has NOTHING to do with the so-called Jesus' new command of preaching to all the nations of the world . Again see the reaction of these Jewish believers in Christ when Peter finished the narration of his Vision; "When they heard this, they had NO FURTHER OBJECTIONS and praised God, saying, "SO THEN, EVEN THE GENTILES, God has granted repentance that leads to life.(Acts 11:18 NIV). Please see the astonishment of these Jewish believers; "SO THEN, EVEN THE GENTILES" . If they have already aware about the Jesus'new command of Preaching to all the Gentile nations in Matthew 28:19, Mark 16:15, Luke 24:47, and Acts 1:8, then WHY ALL THIS ASTONISHMENT? Again some Christians want to argue that the reason why Peter said:"YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE(Acts 10:28)" is because Peter and other apostles find it difficult to discard the Jewish custom of not associating and visiting the Gentiles. However,The fact that Peter responded positively to that VISION and go quickly with those gentiles is an evidence that he never find it difficult to discard this Jewish custom. Again, it is not possible for the all the apostles and disciples of Jesus to give PREFERENCE for mere Jewish custom OVER a great and important command from their Master. What actually preventing them was the command of "NOT PREACHING TO THE GENTILES" in Matthew 10:5-6 and the fact that Jesus told them CATEGORICALLY that he was sent ONLY to the lost sheep of the house of Israel( Matthew 15:24).Do you think Peter would follow those gentiles to meet Cornelius if not because of the VISION he experienced before their arrival. From this, we can be deduced that even if there is a record that Peter and other apostles preach to another Gentile apart from Cornelius and his households, then what "PERMIT" them to do this was the VISION that Peter experienced. It is DEFINITELY NOT the new command of preaching to all the nations attributed FALSELY to Jesus in Matthew 28:19, Mark 16:15, Luke 24:47 and Acts 1:8. Otherwise, the story of events between Peter and Cornelius (Acts 10) and also between Peter and other Jewish believers(Acts 11) are NOT TRUE. Infact, the truth of this forgery can also be realized from Jesus own statement; if it was already in the divine plan that JESUS AND HIS APOSTLES WOULD PREACH TO THE JEWS FIRST AND THEN THE GENTILES, then Jesus' statement directed to that Canaanite woman in Matthew 15:24 should have been: IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES or something similar in meaning rather than “I WAS SENT ONLY TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. This is the FIRST PROBLEM WITH CHRISTIANITY.

The remaining FOUR PROBLEMS I noticed with Christianity are listed below; 1. Problem of " WHO IS GOD?" ( Compare John 1:1,14 WITH John 17:3, John 20:17, John 14:28,John 5:30, John 14:1, Luke 6:12, Mark 10:18 and Matthew 24:36) and WHO IS THE CREATOR ? ( Compare John 1:3, 1st Corinthians 8:6, Colossians 1:16 WITH Isaiah 44:24, 48:13, 45:12 and 66:2). 2. Problem of All merciful and All powerful Father who CURSED (Deuteronomy 21:23,Galatians 3:13) His innocent and beloved son in order to achieve something that can be achieved through another way ( all the Old testament Prophets and believers lived and died before Jesus crucifixion; Yet there is no any biblical verse that says they were in the state of condemnation after their death until the time of Jesus crucifixion). 3. Problem of "Jesus' private appearance to Paul" NOT BEING FORETOLD to the original apostles: ( Compare Matthew 24:23-28, Luke 10:18 With Acts 22:6-9. Compare Genesis 17:9-14, Luke 2:21 With Galatians 5:2-4, Acts 23:12-14. Compare Acts 21:18-31 With Acts 26:1-8, 19-21, Romans 3:7. Compare 2 Corinthians 12:16 with Jeremiah 48:10)" 4 . Problem of "the Bible not being endorsed by God ; (the word "Bible" is no where to be found inside the Bible)". If you rely heavily on the MIRACLE and WONDERS you receive in Jesus name and overlook all these FIVE problems in Christianity, then you are not a wise person; because performing wonders and miracle in Jesus name is NOT a conclusive evidence for authenticity of Christianity due to Jesus statement; MANY will say to me in that day ‘Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in your name, and cast out demons in your name, and done many wonders in your name? And then I will declare to them; I NEVER KNEW YOU depart from me, you who practice lawlessness. (Matthew 7:22-23). Again, If you insist that Qur'an is not from God then you have to solve another great problem; PROBLEM OF GOD'S IMPERSONATION Let me explain it for you; Qur'an contain many REASONABLE verses which appear to be COMING DIRECTLY FROM GOD'S MOUTH. Look at one example; O children of Israel! Remember My special favor which I bestowed upon you, and fulfill your covenant with Me as I fulfill My covenant with you, and fear none but Me. And believe in what I have sent down ( i:e this Qur’an) confirming that which is with you, and be not the first to reject it, nor sell My verses for a small price; and fear Me, and Me alone (Qur’an 2:40-41)”. If the original author of Qur'an is not God, then ONE GREAT LIAR HAS IMPERSONATED GOD. Yes, a dishonest and untruthful person may allow his FRIEND to impersonate him in order to deceive some innocent people. Now, what about a truthful and honest person like you? Would you allow your friend to impersonate you reasonably and perfectly in order to deceive some innocent people? CERTAINLY NOT! Your Honesty and your truthfulness will never allow you to do such a thing. Now,if you as a truthful and honest person will never allow your friend (talkless of your enemy) to reasonably and perfectly impersonate you in order to deceive some innocent people, then why do you think God Almighty, WHO IS MORE TRUTHFUL AND MORE HONEST THAN YOU, would allow His enemy ( not His friend this time around) to impersonate Him reasonably and perfectly ( See the verses of Qur'an quoted just above)? Of course God Almighty would NEVER allow such a thing to happen. God may allow anybody to write or speak about Him as you may also allow your friend to write or speak about you. But God of truth and honesty will NEVER allow His friend talkless of His enemy to impersonate Him; just like you as a truthful and honest person will never allow your friend or your enemy to impersonate you. This is the reason why you can NEVER find a single verse coming DIRECTLY from God's mouth in the New Testament, the backbone of Christianity.Yet we can find many verses coming DIRECTLY from God's mouth in the Old Testament. Why? Because Christianity is never from God! Now, let us take A VERY GREAT AND COSTLY ASSUMPTION by assuming that God Almighty, in His infinite wisdom, deliberately allow His enemy to impersonate Him reasonably and perfectly in order to serve as a TEST for the true believers in the Bible. If this is the case, then God should have clearly informed us in the Bible just like Jesus informed us about his own impersonation: “Take heed that no one deceives you. For MANY WILL COME IN MY NAME, saying ‘I am the Christ’, and will deceive many (Matthew 24:4-5) ”.See how Jesus declared in an unambiguous terms that MANY LIARS would impersonate him. However, you can never find a single biblical verse where God categorically inform us and foretell that a great liar is going to impersonate Him. If God of truth and honesty would also allow a liar to impersonate Him, He should also have informed us in a very precise term in the Bible just like Jesus did. Read the summary of my point below: Qur'an contain many verses which appear to be COMING DIRECTLY FROM GOD'S MOUTH. Yet there is NO ANY VERSE in the Bible where it is prophesied that one great liar will IMPERSONATE God. Therefore, with respect to the Bible, the probability of Qur'an being the word of a liar is ZERO. The New Testament do NOT contain any verse that appear to be coming directly from God's mouth. Therefore, it is not entitle to this divine endorsement. Although it contains many verses which appear to be COMING DIRECTLY FROM Jesus 'mouth. But there are some verses that prophesied that MANY LIARS WILL IMPERSONATE JESUS( e.g Matthew 24:4-5). Therefore, there is a probability, no matter how small it is, that some of the words attributed to Jesus may not actually came from his mouth.

Abdulgaffar22:

Jesus said; I WAS SENT ONLY TO LOST SHEEP
OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 15:24)
Again Jesus commanded his twelve apostles as
follows; THESE TWELVE JESUS SENT FORTH,
AND COMMANDED THEM, SAYING, GO NOT INTO
THE WAY OF THE GENTILES, AND INTO ANY
CITY OF THE SAMARITANS ENTER YE NOT: BUT
GO RATHER TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE
OF ISRAEL (Matthew 10:5-6). This further
corroborates the fact that Jesus was sent ONLY
to the Israelites.
However, many of the Christians believe that this
command of "NOT PREACHING TO THE
GENTILES" was later cancelled and replaced by
the new command of preaching to all the nations
JUST BEFORE Jesus ascended to heaven:
1. Matthew 28:19; "Go therefore and make
disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the
name of the Father and of the Son and of the
Holy Spirit".
2. Mark 16.15; “Go into all the world and preach
the gospel to all creation.”
3. Acts 1.8 ; "and you will be my witnesses in
Jerusalem, in all Judea and Samaria, and to the
ends of the earth.”
4. Luke 24.47; “that repentance for forgiveness of
sins should be proclaimed in His name to all the
nations, beginning from Jerusalem.”
Therefore, it seems from these four verses that
the apostles of Jesus were NOW FREE TO VISIT
THE GENTILES AND PREACH THE GOSPEL TO
ALL THE NATIONS OF THE WORLD.
But was it REALLY TRUE that the original
apostles of Jesus were NOW FREE TO VISIT THE
GENTILES AND PREACH THE GOSPELS TO ALL
THE NATIONS OF THE WORLD ?
If this is true, then why did Peter utter the
statement below MANY YEARS AFTER Jesus'
departure from this world?
"YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST
OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR
VISIT A GENTILE. BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME
THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR
UNCLEAN. So when I was sent for, I came without
raising any objection. May I ask why you sent for
me? (Acts 10:28-29 NIV). Was Peter NOT aware
that they were now FREE to visit the gentiles and
preach the gospel to all the nations of the world?
Some of the Christians want to argue that the
reason why Peter said: "YOU ARE WELL AWARE
THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO
ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE" is
because he has forgotten the Jesus'new
command of preaching to all the nations of the
world. But if this is true, then why did remaining
Jewish believers in Christ criticize Peter on the
SAME ISSUE OF VISITING AND ASSOCIATING
WITH GENTILES on his return to Jerusalem as
the following passage revealed ?
Acts 11 New Living Translation (NLT) "Soon the
news reached the apostles and other believers in
Judea that the Gentiles had received the word of
God. But when Peter arrived back in Jerusalem,
THE JEWISH BELIEVERS CRITICIZED HIM. “YOU
ENTERED THE HOME OF THE GENTILES AND
EVEN ATE WITH THEM!” (Acts 11:1-3 NLT). Have
they also forgotten the Jesus'new command of
preaching all the nations of the world? If the
other Jewish believers in Christ do not critize
Peter on his arrival to Jerusalem ON THE SAME
ISSUE OF VISITING AND ASSOCIATING WITH
GENTILES as shown above, then we may think
that it was Peter that was saying nonsense when
he said "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS
AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE
WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. (Acts 10:28).The
second part of the Peter's statement "BUT GOD
HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL
ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN" is only referring
to the "VISION" he experienced just before the
arrival of the men sent by Cornelius (See Acts
10:1-28) . The statement has NOTHING to do
with the so-called Jesus' new command of
preaching to all the nations of the world . Again
see the reaction of these Jewish believers in
Christ when Peter finished the narration of his
Vision; "When they heard this, they had NO
FURTHER OBJECTIONS and praised God, saying,
"SO THEN, EVEN THE GENTILES, God has granted
repentance that leads to life.(Acts 11:18 NIV).
Please see the astonishment of these Jewish
believers; "SO THEN, EVEN THE GENTILES" . If
they have already aware about the Jesus'new
command of Preaching to all the Gentile nations
in Matthew 28:19, Mark 16:15, Luke 24:47, and
Acts 1:8, then WHY ALL THIS ASTONISHMENT?
Again some Christians want to argue that the
reason why Peter said:"YOU ARE WELL AWARE
THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO
ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE(Acts
10:28)" is because Peter and other apostles find it
difficult to discard the Jewish custom of not
associating and visiting the Gentiles. However,The
fact that Peter responded positively to that
VISION and go quickly with those gentiles is an
evidence that he never find it difficult to discard
this Jewish custom. Again, it is not possible for
the all the apostles and disciples of Jesus to give
PREFERENCE for mere Jewish custom OVER a
great and important command from their Master.
What actually preventing them was the command
of "NOT PREACHING TO THE GENTILES" in
Matthew 10:5-6 and the fact that Jesus told
them CATEGORICALLY that he was sent ONLY to
the lost sheep of the house of Israel( Matthew
15:24).Do you think Peter would follow those
gentiles to meet Cornelius if not because of the
VISION he experienced before their arrival.
From this, we can be deduced that even if there is
a record that Peter and other apostles preach to
another Gentile apart from Cornelius and his
households, then what "PERMIT" them to do this
was the VISION that Peter experienced. It is
DEFINITELY NOT the new command of preaching
to all the nations attributed FALSELY to Jesus in
Matthew 28:19, Mark 16:15, Luke 24:47 and Acts
1:8. Otherwise, the story of events between Peter
and Cornelius (Acts 10) and also between Peter
and other Jewish believers(Acts 11) are NOT
TRUE.
Infact, the truth of this forgery can also be
realized from Jesus own statement; if it was
already in the divine plan that JESUS AND HIS
APOSTLES WOULD PREACH TO THE JEWS FIRST
AND THEN THE GENTILES, then Jesus' statement
directed to that Canaanite woman in Matthew
15:24 should have been: IT IS NOT YET TIME
FOR THE GENTILES or something similar in
meaning rather than “I WAS SENT ONLY TO THE
LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. This is
the FIRST PROBLEM WITH CHRISTIANITY.

Trash !!!

Copy and paste that has no relevance to the topic.

The questions you have failed to answer are:

(1) Why didn't God's people and prophets (including Jesus) in the Bible recognize Kaaba, if it was Abraham who built it?

If Jesus recognized Islam or Muhammad, why would he say only the Gospel should be preached till the end of the world?

Since the Gospel is expected to be preached till the end, who sent Islam?

Why is Islam about Ishmael and his mother Hagai, what of Serah, Isaac and Jacob if Abraham was the founder of Islam. What were the roles of other children of Abraham in Islam?

Jesus was sent to the whole world. There was the time for salvation of the Jews and there was time for salvation of the Gentiles. So, when it was not yet time for the Gentiles, Jesus said " I'm sent for lost sheep of Israel"

When it was time for the Gentiles, the same Jesus said:

Matthew 28:19-20

(19) Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,

(20) Teaching them to observe all things that I have commanded you; and lo, I am with you always, even to the end of the age.” Amen.

Op, Islam is false , as you rightly said .

HOW DO WE KNOW THE KABAAH WAS NOT BUILT BY ABRAHAM ?

This is the answer :

Volume 4, Book 55, Number 585:
Sahih Bukhari :
Narrated Abu Dhar:

I said, "O Allah's Apostle! Which mosque was first built on the surface of the earth?" He said, "Al-Masjid-ul-,Haram (in Mecca)." I said, "Which was built next?" He replied "The mosque of Al-Aqsa ( in Jerusalem) ." I said, "What was the period of construction between the two?" He said, "Forty years." He added, "Wherever (you may be, and) the prayer time becomes due, perform the prayer there, for the best thing is to do so (i.e. to offer the prayers in time)."


FROM THE ABOVE , THE KABAAH WAS BUILT 40 YEARS B4 THE SYNAGOGUE BUILT BY SOLOMON .

WHAT WAS THE YEARS BETWEEN ABRAHAM ANS SOLOMON , ACCORDING TO THE BIBLE ?

Matthew 1:1-7 KJV
The book of the generation of Jesus Christ, the son of David, the son of Abraham. [2] Abraham begat Isaac; and Isaac begat Jacob; and Jacob begat Judas and his brethren; [3] And Judas begat Phares and Zara of Thamar; and Phares begat Esrom; and Esrom begat Aram; [4] And Aram begat Aminadab; and Aminadab begat Naasson; and Naasson begat Salmon; [5] And Salmon begat Booz of Rachab; and Booz begat Obed of Ruth; and Obed begat Jesse; [6] And Jesse begat David the king; and David the king begat Solomon of her that had been the wife of Urias; [7] And Solomon begat Roboam; and Roboam begat Abia; and Abia begat Asa;

List :
Abraham,Isaac, Jacob, Judas,Phares,Esrom,Aram,Aminadab,Naasson,Salmon,Booz,Obed of Ruth,Jesse,David the king and Solomon. ( 14 Generations )

If we take 50 years between each generations, this will amount to 700 years gap between when Abraham lived and the time Solomon was burn.

THIS SHOWS THAT MUHAMMAD WAS A FALSE PROPHET AND A LIAR.

THE BIBLE ALWAYS GIVES VIVID ACCOUNT WHICH CAN BE TREACEABLE EITHER BY YEARS, THE REIGNING KING AS AT THEN OR BY THE SORROUNDING CIRCUMSTANCE AND NATIONS , UNLIKE QURAN.

enilove:

WHAT WAS THE YEARS BETWEEN ABRAHAM ANS SOLOMON , ACCORDING TO THE BIBLE ?

If we take 50 years between each generations, this will amount to 700 years gap between when Abraham lived and the time Solomon was burn.

If we make it up you mean. And once they start being made up, don't they just lose credibility?

Date given for Abraham's call is circa 2160BC with Isaac born a 100 years later in 2060BC. While Solomon becomes king about 971BC.

And dates from genealogy of Jesus in the two gospels that list them hardly add up since both contain omissions.

Just thought I'd mention while I await more credible submissions pertaining to the question posed in the thread. Though, why Jesus should have mentioned Mohammed, eludes me. Isn't that like asking why an earlier prophet, i.e. Jeremiah, didn't mention a latter one i.e. Micah? One would hardly use that fact to discredit Micah, or would one, op?

budaatum:

If we make it up you mean. And once they start being made up, don't they just lose credibility?

Date given for Abraham's call is circa 2160BC with Isaac born a 100 years later in 2060BC. While Solomon becomes king about 971BC.

And dates from genealogy of Jesus in the two gospels that list them hardly add up since both contain omissions.

Just thought I'd mention while I await more credible submissions pertaining to the question posed in the thread. Though, why Jesus should have mentioned Mohammed, eludes me. Isn't that like asking why an earlier prophet, i.e. Jeremiah, didn't mention a latter one i.e. Micah? One would hardly use that fact to discredit Micah, or would one, op?

The fact that Jesus said "And this Gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in ALL THE WORLD for a witness to ALL NATIONS (Arab nation inclusive) and then the end shall come (Mat.24:14) shows it is not the God Jesus represented who sent Islam. Islam is not Gospel that Jesus was expecting to be preached till the END.

Even if Jesus didn't mention Muhammad's name, would he not have talked about Kaaba, which Muslims claim was built by Abraham? Before and during Jesus time it was not heard in Israel that Kaaba in Mecca was built by Abraham. Let's be truthful to ourselves, Abraham could not have built Kaaba without the Israelites knowing about it and going there for worship. But did they?

Was Isaac in Mecca? Was Jacob there? What was said about Serah in Islamic worship. Why was Jesus and other prophets not in Mecca for worship?

The Bible says Ishmael came to Israel to join in burying Abraham when he died. This shows Abraham was resident in Israel. If Abraham was in Israel and the people with him didn't know he built Kaaba in Mecca and go there to worship, it measn a lie was told about him building Kaaba.

budaatum:

If we make it up you mean. And once they start being made up, don't they just lose credibility?

Date given for Abraham's call is circa 2160BC with Isaac born a 100 years later in 2060BC. While Solomon becomes king about 971BC.

And dates from genealogy of Jesus in the two gospels that list them hardly add up since both contain omissions.

Just thought I'd mention while I await more credible submissions pertaining to the question posed in the thread. Though, why Jesus should have mentioned Mohammed, eludes me. Isn't that like asking why an earlier prophet, i.e. Jeremiah, didn't mention a latter one i.e. Micah? One would hardly use that fact to discredit Micah, or would one, op?

There exists actual date as mentioned above and historically written.

My calculation was based on my rough estimate which I did intentionally as a least gap between them.

As per the topic of the thread and from your own reasoning that Jeremiah did not mentioned Micah and that should not be a yardstick .

Jesus Christ was mentioned by Moses and other Prophets because he is a Messiah unlike other prophets.

No prophet made mentioned of the coming of other Prophets.
Right from the time of Moses , all the Prophets kept talking about the coming of the Messiah.
All the prophets after Moses were only given for the guidance of the Israelites pending the coming of the Messiah.

That was why the Pharisees asked in :

John 1:20-25 KJV
And he confessed, and denied not; but confessed, I am not the Christ. [21] And they asked him, What then? Art thou Elias? And he saith, I am not. Art thou that prophet? And he answered, No. [22] Then said they unto him, Who art thou? that we may give an answer to them that sent us. What sayest thou of thyself? [23] He said, I am the voice of one crying in the wilderness, Make straight the way of the Lord, as said the prophet Esaias. [24] And they which were sent were of the Pharisees. [25] And they asked him, and said unto him, Why baptizest thou then, if thou be not that Christ, nor Elias, neither that prophet?

ALL THAT THE WORLD NEEDS IN TERMS OF HOLY BOOK , LAWS ,INSTRUCTIONS ,MODES OF WORSHIPING ETC WOULD HAVE BEEN GIVEN TO MOSES ONCE AND FOR ALL.
BUT THAT COULD NOT SAVE EXCEPT THE BLOOD THAT HAS NO LINK WITH THAT OF THE CHILDREN OF ADAM IS SHED AS A SACRIFICE , TO REDEEM MAN BACK TO GOD.
THIS CAME THROUGH DEATH OF JESUS ON THE CROSS.

MEANING , THERE IS NO NEED FOR OTHER PROPHET OR PROPHETS TO GUIDE MANKIND.

JESUS SAID "IT IS FINISHED". ANYTHING BESIDES JESUS IS A FAKE AND A LIE.

enilove:


There exists actual date as mentioned above and historically written.

My calculation was based on my rough estimate which I did intentionally as a least gap between them.

As per the topic of the thread and from your own reasoning that Jeremiah did not mentioned Micah and that should not be a yardstick .

Jesus Christ was mentioned by Moses and other Prophets because he is a Messiah unlike other prophets.

No prophet made mentioned of the coming of other Prophets.
Right from the time of Moses , all the Prophets kept talking about the coming of the Messiah.
All the prophets after Moses were only given for the guidance of the Israelites pending the coming of the Messiah.

That was why the Pharisees asked in :

John 1:20-25 KJV
And he confessed, and denied not; but confessed, I am not the Christ. [21] And they asked him, What then? Art thou Elias? And he saith, I am not. Art thou that prophet? And he answered, No. [22] Then said they unto him, Who art thou? that we may give an answer to them that sent us. What sayest thou of thyself? [23] He said, I am the voice of one crying in the wilderness, Make straight the way of the Lord, as said the prophet Esaias. [24] And they which were sent were of the Pharisees. [25] And they asked him, and said unto him, Why baptizest thou then, if thou be not that Christ, nor Elias, neither that prophet?

ALL THAT THE WORLD NEEDS IN TERMS OF HOLY BOOK , LAWS ,INSTRUCTIONS ,MODES OF WORSHIPING ETC WOULD HAVE BEEN GIVEN TO MOSES ONCE AND FOR ALL.
BUT THAT COULD NOT SAVE EXCEPT THE BLOOD THAT HAS NO LINK WITH THAT OF THE CHILDREN OF ADAM IS SHED AS A SACRIFICE , TO REDEEM MAN BACK TO GOD.
THIS CAME THROUGH DEATH OF JESUS ON THE CROSS.

MEANING , THERE IS NO NEED FOR OTHER PROPHET OR PROPHETS TO GUIDE MANKIND.

JESUS SAID "IT IS FINISHED". ANYTHING BESIDES JESUS IS A FAKE AND A LIE.

Succinct !!!

Chosen59:



Succinct !!!

Thanks.

I was a Muslim . I now know for sure the truth in Jesus . It was not by reading but by payers. These people need prayers. Islam is a very very stronghold . Coming out of it is the grace of God.

God bless you for this thread.

enilove:


Thanks.

I was a Muslim . I now know for sure the truth in Jesus . It was not by reading but by payers. These people need prayers. Islam is a very very stronghold . Coming out of it is the grace of God.

God bless you for this thread.

It is great to know you were once a Muslim. I really thank God for delivering you from the claw of Islam. As the Lord lives, we shall make it to heaven in Jesus name.

It is my prayers that the Lord who delivered you will deliver the Muslims reading this thread. Your contributions have been great. Many thanks.

I am not aware that Moses mentioned a messiah, love. I'd go as far as claiming he didn't need to since he himself was a messiah in his day. He after all did save the Israelites from the Egyptians. Educate me please.

The Gospel of John which you've quoted was written way after the fact, and using it as evidence of a foretelling as you've done here is like claiming a report of an incident reported in the Daily Times is a foretelling of the reported incident before it actually happened. One just need look at the date on the front of the Daily Times to know it was written after the fact, and for a purpose for that matter, which was to provide a narrative for the claim that Christ was the Messiah, which was being disputed at the time of writing. If one called it propaganda, they wouldn't be far off the truth, though that would be for looking at it myopically.

As to the "ALL THAT THE WORLD NEEDS IN TERMS OF HOLY BOOK" etc, I wonder. I guess if one sees holy books as accurate reports of what actually happened, to be accepted as true in their literal sense, and hence to be believed, then one can't help but create silly threads as this one, since its measure is 'What do you believe?' and ' Are your beliefs the correct ones?'

A person who learns from them though, as opposed to a 'believer', would understand not to wallow in the "Thank you Lord that I am not like that Muslim over there". Which brings my wondering to an end I suppose. For in as much as simple lessons as these have not yet been learnt, then the "blood" can not have done it's supposed job, and more 'holy books' are required to fulfil that role of salvation. Those who gnash their teeth, after all, as op has done in this thread, can not be said to have been "REDEEM[ed] BACK TO GOD", in my opinion. Perhaps op is just not "MAN", or my measuring scale is sort of different.

Anyway, I am sure there'll be more contributions to this thread. There are two sort of threads that get 'believers' going and this thread has one of them.

Oh, and thank you very much love for the nice response!

enilove:


There exists actual date as mentioned above and historically written.

My calculation was based on my rough estimate which I did intentionally as a least gap between them.

As per the topic of the thread and from your own reasoning that Jeremiah did not mentioned Micah and that should not be a yardstick .

Jesus Christ was mentioned by Moses and other Prophets because he is a Messiah unlike other prophets.

No prophet made mentioned of the coming of other Prophets.
Right from the time of Moses , all the Prophets kept talking about the coming of the Messiah.
All the prophets after Moses were only given for the guidance of the Israelites pending the coming of the Messiah.

That was why the Pharisees asked in :

John 1:20-25 KJV
And he confessed, and denied not; but confessed, I am not the Christ. [21] And they asked him, What then? Art thou Elias? And he saith, I am not. Art thou that prophet? And he answered, No. [22] Then said they unto him, Who art thou? that we may give an answer to them that sent us. What sayest thou of thyself? [23] He said, I am the voice of one crying in the wilderness, Make straight the way of the Lord, as said the prophet Esaias. [24] And they which were sent were of the Pharisees. [25] And they asked him, and said unto him, Why baptizest thou then, if thou be not that Christ, nor Elias, neither that prophet?

ALL THAT THE WORLD NEEDS IN TERMS OF HOLY BOOK , LAWS ,INSTRUCTIONS ,MODES OF WORSHIPING ETC WOULD HAVE BEEN GIVEN TO MOSES ONCE AND FOR ALL.
BUT THAT COULD NOT SAVE EXCEPT THE BLOOD THAT HAS NO LINK WITH THAT OF THE CHILDREN OF ADAM IS SHED AS A SACRIFICE , TO REDEEM MAN BACK TO GOD.
THIS CAME THROUGH DEATH OF JESUS ON THE CROSS.

MEANING , THERE IS NO NEED FOR OTHER PROPHET OR PROPHETS TO GUIDE MANKIND.

JESUS SAID "IT IS FINISHED". ANYTHING BESIDES JESUS IS A FAKE AND A LIE.

Simple answer is in Matthew 24:5.

Mohammad is a False Prophet.

That's the top secret that is responsible for Islamic hostilities world over. Just to cover this secret.

Jesus does not recognise Muhammed because they are not from the same Spirit.

He only warned us concerning false prophet(s) that will come after him.


1 John 2:22 Who is a liar but he that denieth that Jesus is the Christ? He is antichrist, that denieth the Father and the Son.

1 John 4:3 And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not of God: and this is that spirit of antichrist, whereof ye have heard that it should come; and even now already is it in the world.

2 John1:7 For many deceivers are entered into the world, who confess not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh. This is a deceiver and an antichrist.

Muhammed denied all what Christ stands for.

The bible says in Hebrew 1:1-2
1 God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,

2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;

This conclude that the greatest of all messenger, prophet or messiah have been sent to us in the person of Jesus Christ. And Christ said "it is FINISHED"

Whatsoever Muhammed brought is fabrication of the gospel truth.

Believe the false prophet at your own risk!

Shalom aleikhem!

budaatum:
I am not aware that Moses mentioned a messiah, love. I'd go as far as claiming he didn't need to since he himself was a messiah in his day. He after all did save the Israelites from the Egyptians. Educate me please.

The Gospel of John which you've quoted was written way after the fact, and using it as evidence of a foretelling as you've done here is like claiming a report of an incident reported in the Daily Times is a foretelling of the reported incident before it actually happened. One just need look at the date on the front of the Daily Times to know it was written after the fact, and for a purpose for that matter, which was to provide a narrative for the claim that Christ was the Messiah, which was being disputed at the time of writing. If one called it propaganda, they wouldn't be far off the truth, though that would be for looking at it myopically.

As to the "ALL THAT THE WORLD NEEDS IN TERMS OF HOLY BOOK" etc, I wonder. I guess if one sees holy books as accurate reports of what actually happened, to be accepted as true in their literal sense, and hence to be believed, then one can't help but create silly threads as this one, since its measure is 'What do you believe?' and ' Are your beliefs the correct ones?'

A person who learns from them though, as opposed to a 'believer', would understand not to wallow in the "Thank you Lord that I am not like that Muslim over there". Which brings my wondering to an end I suppose. For in as much as simple lessons as these have not yet been learnt, then the "blood" can not have done it's supposed job, and more 'holy books' are required to fulfil that role of salvation. Those who gnash their teeth, after all, as op has done in this thread, can not be said to have been "REDEEM[ed] BACK TO GOD", in my opinion. Perhaps op is just not "MAN", or my measuring scale is sort of different.

Anyway, I am sure there'll be more contributions to this thread. There are two sort of threads that get 'believers' going and this thread has one of them.

Oh, and thank you very much love for the nice response!

Moses made was not a Messiah during his time. He was a prophet sent to bring out the Israelites out of Egypt with laws and commandments to follow pending the coming of the Messiah. Moses knew this and he specifically spoke to the Israelites about this :

The MAIN purpose of God sending His Prophets is not to save mankind from the troubles and problems of this world but to permanently save us from everlasting condemnation after death , which can only be by the sacrifice of a pure blood that did not inherit the curse God placed upon Adam and Eve.
Moses was a temporary saviour , but Jesus is a permanent saviour. That was why Moses said it is that prophet they should listen to.

Deuteronomy 18:15,18 KJV
The Lord thy God will raise up unto thee a Prophet from the midst of thee, of thy brethren, like unto me; UNTO HIM YE SHALL HEARKEN;
[18] I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him.

Isaiah 53:4-8 KJV
Surely he hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows: yet we did esteem him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted. [5] But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace was upon him; and with his stripes we are healed. [6] All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to his own way; and the Lord hath laid on him the iniquity of us all. [7] He was oppressed, and he was afflicted, yet he opened not his mouth: he is brought as a lamb to the slaughter, and as a sheep before her shearers is dumb, so he openeth not his mouth. [8] He was taken from prison and from judgment: and who shall declare his generation? for he was cut off out of the land of the living: for the transgression of my people was he stricken.


LASTLY , the date a past invent was written is not as important as the facts of the event .

A false account of an incident or event that happened to taday and written down today will not validate it . Likewise a true account written 10 years or 100 years after its occurrence will not change it to a false.
Before the advent of writings , history was passed down from generations to generations through oral communications for centuries and most of them were as accurate as written ones.
Even as at today , the Israelites are still waiting for a Messiah despite the fact that they had Moses and other Prophets.
They don't believe Jesus was a Messiah.
That was why they asked John the Baptist , "are you the Christ".
That means there is a diff btw a Prophet and a Messiah.


I AM NOT TRYING TO TEACH YOU ANYTHING SINCE WE ARE ALL LEARNING FROM THIS FORUM AND WILL CONTINUE TILL WE DEPART FROM THIS WORLD.
I PRAY THAT WE WILL NOT REGRET IN THE END , IN JESUS NAME.

THANKS.