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The Koran Reveals The Identity Of History's Biggest Failure & Promise Breaker by ContractKiller: 9:12am On Feb 20, 2020 |
Copied from Reddit. 2 Likes |
Re: The Koran Reveals The Identity Of History's Biggest Failure & Promise Breaker by TheExecutioner: 9:57am On Feb 20, 2020 |
AntiChristian and IamStrange will avoid this page like Quranavirus 2 Likes |
Re: The Koran Reveals The Identity Of History's Biggest Failure & Promise Breaker by StaffofOrayan(m): 10:00am On Feb 20, 2020 |
Allah has never saved anybody Neither has Jesus You can't see the folly in one and not the other |
Re: The Koran Reveals The Identity Of History's Biggest Failure & Promise Breaker by Nobody: 3:44pm On Feb 20, 2020 |
You don't ask scholars what you do not understand. You don't seek knowledge rather you'll just address matters as it appears to you. And when it's explained to you, your malicious intentions wont make you accept. I don't even expect you to accept this too because that's your way. Read these sources to educate yourself concerning abrogation and removal of verses. I have already told you, if you have an issue, go and consult scholars. but you will choose to come here and call out people who are still very little in knowledge and if they can't answer, you'll think in your mind, you win. Anyway, read these references and WATCH OUT FOR THE NEXT COMMENT. https://islamqa.info/en/answers/178209/response-to-some-misunderstandings-of-the-texts-which-make-the-questioner-think-that-the-quran-is-not-preserved https://islamqa.info/en/answers/105746/abrogation-in-the-quran-and-the-order-of-its-soorahs-and-verses |
Re: The Koran Reveals The Identity Of History's Biggest Failure & Promise Breaker by Nobody: 3:45pm On Feb 20, 2020 |
After I have answered you and directed you to where you can get answer to your question because you can bring this usual attitude and say I did not answer rather I went to the bible... Please answer these questions too. 1. God of the bible RESTED and WAS REFRESHED? Exodus: 31. 17. It is a sign between me and the children of Israel for ever: for in six days the LORD made heaven and earth, and on the seventh day he rested, and was refreshed. - Bible Offline 2. Does the God of the bible sleep and needs to be woke up? And in another verse, it says he woke up as a drunkard shouts from sleep? And even if the sleep is not actual sleep but metaphorical, then it's gonna stand for something derogatory to God like God being in a state of forgetfulness or ignorance or heedlessness or not doing His duty. How's these sleeping verses to be explained? Psalm: 44. 23. Awake, why sleepest thou, O Lord? arise, cast us not off for ever. - Bible Offline Then the Lord awoke as from sleep, as a warrior wakes from the stupor of wine. Psalm 78:65 3. Who is the first born of Abraham? Isaac or Ishmael. If Ishmael is the first born, then the following verse is a fallacy in the bible. Because the following verse, God called Isaac, the ONLY son of Abraham. How could this have been possible when Isaac had an elder brother? If Isaac was second and he had Ishmael as an elder brother, then God should never have called him "Only Son". Can you explain that? Genesis: 22. 2. And he said, Take now thy son, thine only son Isaac, whom thou lovest, and get thee into the land of Moriah; and offer him there for a burnt offering upon one of the mountains which I will tell thee of. - Bible Offline 4. I thought you people said God only allows one husband, one wife. But the below verse suggests God allowed it (polygyny) and was even regulating it. How come? And if you say God later cancelled it in New testament, then show me the proof that God did so. Is that not a verse regulating polygamy? Please explain. Exodus 21:10 - If he marries another woman, he must not deprive the first one of her food, clothing and marital rights. 5. How can Jesus according to bible, worsen a situation instead of bettering it? How can he curse a tree instead of praying for it to bear fruit? Destroying Trees like this translates to losses and so on. Imagine if he did that multiple times, that will cause an adverse effect to the economy? Just explain how Jesus who is supposed to be large hearted and have good character, why he cursed a tree never to bear fruit instead of praying for the situation to be better? Is that Jesus way? That he ruins things further than they were instead of bettering it? Just explain please. Early in the morning, as Jesus was on his way back to the city, he was hungry. Seeing a fig tree by the road, he went up to it but found nothing on it except leaves. Then he said to it, “May you never bear fruit again!” Immediately the tree withered. Matthew 21:18-22 NIV Then lastly for now, does the following verse not suggest that God of the bible was not condemning rather he was supporting and was even regulating a man selling his daughter into being a maidservant? Regulating where not the daughter come maidservant should go to? If it is so, then how do you explain such apparent atrocity of God? Please explain. Exodus: 21. 7. And if a man sell his daughter to be a maidservant, she shall not go out as the menservants do. 8. If she please not her master, who hath betrothed her to himself, then shall he let her be redeemed: to sell her unto a strange nation he shall have no power, seeing he hath dealt deceitfully with her. - Bible Offline So there they are. Kindly explain those five. AntiChristian brother let's watch as the theological genius defends his God. May Allaah save us from confusion. 2 Likes 1 Share |
Re: The Koran Reveals The Identity Of History's Biggest Failure & Promise Breaker by TheExecutioner: 4:36pm On Feb 20, 2020 |
Yes, the removal of verses by a goat A goat became allah's annointed servant and editor in chief of the koran. Your beloved "scholars" are liars. [img]https://images./7Hl2z3yrbdqx0ufX1U2GrJ.gif[/img] IAmStrange: 1 Like |
Re: The Koran Reveals The Identity Of History's Biggest Failure & Promise Breaker by EkunKekere: 4:50pm On Feb 20, 2020 |
The text of the koran we have today is not even Uthman's Revised Version of the Qur'an (Zaid Bin Thabit’s Koran), because it incorporates changes by Al-Hajjaj Ibn Yusuf Al-Thakafi. Al-Hajjaj Ibn Yusuf Al-Thakafi, who lived in the years AD 660-714, was a teacher of the Arabic language in the city of Taif. Then he joined the military and became the most powerful person during the reign of Caliph Abd al-Malik Ibn Marawan and after him his son al-Waleed Ibn Abd al-Malik. Because Al-Hajjaj taught Arabic, he gave himself the liberty to change several words of Caliph Uthman's Qur'an, which is an indication that he did not believe that the Qur'an was verbally inspired or was inscribed in a "tablet preserved." For brevity's sake we will only mention a few of these changes: 1. In Surah Yunus 10:22, he changed the word yanshorokom, which means "spread you," to yousayerokom, which means "makes you to go on." 2. In Surah Ash-Shuara 26:116, he changed the word Al-Mukhrageen, which means "the cast out," to Al-Margoomeen, which means "those who are to be stoned [to death]." 3. In Surah Ash-Shuara 26:167, he changed the word Min Al-Margoomeen, which means "those who are to be stoned to death," to Al-Mukhrageen, which means "those who will assuredly be cast out." 4. In Surah Muhammad 47:15, he changed the word yasen, which is poor Arabic to Asen, which means "unpolluted." 5. In Surah al-Hadid 57:7, he changed the word wataqu, which means "feared Allah," to Wa-anfaqu, which means "spend in charity." There have been hundreds of textual changes and meanings of words in the koran almost from the word go and they're still doing it to this day. Go and read the clear and concise koran and you'll see how several of the verses have been changed. |
Re: The Koran Reveals The Identity Of History's Biggest Failure & Promise Breaker by EkunKekere: 4:54pm On Feb 20, 2020 |
1. God of the bible RESTED and WAS REFRESHED? The Bible is very explicit that God NEVER grows weary and is NEVER tired: "He will not let your foot be moved, he who keeps you will not slumber. Behold, he who keeps Israel will neither slumber nor sleep." Psalm 121:3-4 "Have you not known? Have you not heard? The LORD is the everlasting God, the Creator of the ends of the earth. He does not faint or grow weary, his understanding is unsearchable." Isaiah 40:28 God’s true Word also states that there is nothing too hard for Yahweh: "Is anything too hard for the LORD? At the appointed time I will return to you, in the spring, and Sarah shall have a son." Genesis 18:14 "‘Ah, Lord GOD! It is you who has made the heavens and the earth by your great power and by your outstretched arm! Nothing is too hard for you. You show steadfast love to thousands, but you repay the guilt of fathers to their children after them, O great and mighty God, whose name is the LORD of hosts, …’ The word of the LORD came to Jeremiah: ‘Behold, I am the LORD, the God of all flesh. Is anything too hard for me?’" Jeremiah 32:17-18, 26-27 In light of the foregoing we can now more fully appreciate and understand the point God was making to the Israelites in Exodus 31:17. The text is essentially saying that God was refreshed in the sense of receiving satisfaction from what he had created since he saw that everything he made was very good: "And God saw everything that he had made, and behold, it was very good. And there was evening and there was morning, a sixth day." Genesis 1:31 Putting it simply, saying that God rested and was refreshed is simply a vividly poetic way of saying that Yahweh received great delight and pleasure after surveying the work of his creation.
Isaac was the promised child, the Child of Covenant and not a child born out of wedlock like Ishmael. In Judaism, a bastard could never claim the same rights as a legitimate son. 4. I thought you people said God only allows one husband, one wife. But the below verse suggests God allowed it (polygyny) and was even regulating it. How come? And if you say God later cancelled it in New testament, then show me the proof that God did so. Is that not a verse regulating polygamy? Please explain. Polygamy was introduced by man but God stepped in to regulate it and prevent man from abusing it. In God's ideal and perfect plan as revealed in the garden of Eden, the first Man, Adam only had one wife. And whenever marriage is spoken of in the Bible by God, he always references it as a union between a man and a woman. He never for once considers it to be a union between a man and multiple women. Then lastly for now, does the following verse not suggest that God of the bible was not condemning rather he was supporting and was even regulating a man selling his daughter into being a maidservant? Regulating where not the daughter come maidservant should go to? If it is so, then how do you explain such apparent atrocity of God? Please explain. I think we have to understand that these laws were for a specific place and time. In this case, it is one Israelite man paying an amount that included the bride price for another Israelite man’s daughter. Given how difficult life could be in the ancient world, such an agreement may represent great benefit to the daughter. The law here makes it clear that the man who took the daughter into his house must not treat her unfairly or sell her to a foreign nation. In fact, if he is displeased with her she can be redeemed or redeem herself and go free. And if he mistreats her by denying food, clothing or marital rights (kids) she can leave without paying a dime. God was not saying that this culture was ideal, but rather He was working within the existing culture to move it in a redemptive direction and protect the rights of the woman. IAmStrange: |
Re: The Koran Reveals The Identity Of History's Biggest Failure & Promise Breaker by Nobody: 5:47pm On Feb 20, 2020 |
EkunKekere: So that's the interpretation. If you don't mind, did you just think this or that's how the scholars of the bible interpreted it? Because one of your Christian apologists explained it differently. What's your source in this interpretation when the verse itself apparently looks very literal. But since you say it's metaphorical, What's your source for the interpretation? Or do you guys just give verse metaphorical meanings the way it suits you? AND MIND YOU, you didn't answer the ones concerning sleeping. Isaac was the promised child, the Child of Covenant and not a child born out of wedlock like Ishmael. In Judaism, a bastard could never claim the same rights as a legitimate son. Wow, so Abraham of all people had an illegitimate child which means a child born out of adultery? I'm not surprised. This is not the first time you people cast aspersions on the image of Prophets of God. That's how you say Lut was made drunk and was slept with by his two daughters and they begot bastard children for their father. That's how you say God commanded Isaiah to extract his cloths from his loins and Isaiah walked naked and barefoot in the streets of Jerusalem. That's how you say David killed a neighbour and committed adultery with his wife. Well, in short, that terms "your only son" meant your only legitimate son, right? Okay! Polygamy was introduced by man but God stepped in to regulate it and prevent man from abusing it. In God's ideal and perfect plan as revealed in the garden of Eden, the first Man, Adam only had one wife. And whenever marriage is spoken of in the Bible by God, he always references it as a union between a man and a woman. He never for once considers it to be a union between a man and multiple women. You people normally say what God allows is one man, one woman. That God forbids polygamy. Do you think it makes sense or it's right to regulate what you forbid? If I say for example, Stealing a car is forbidden. Then tomorrow, I write a book that is titled "Guidelines on how to steal a car successfully", how does that sound to you? For God to have regulated it, even if it was introduced by man, it means He ALLOWED it. God can never regulate what he forbids. That's ridiculous. or is that how the God of the bible works? MIND YOU, you didn't answer the one concerning worsening an already bad situation. what was the wisdom behind it? I think we have to understand that these laws were for a specific place and time. In this case, it is one Israelite man paying an amount that included the bride price for another Israelite man’s daughter. Given how difficult life could be in the ancient world, such an agreement may represent great benefit to the daughter. The law here makes it clear that the man who took the daughter into his house must not treat her unfairly or sell her to a foreign nation. In fact, if he is displeased with her she can be redeemed or redeem herself and go free. And if he mistreats her by denying food, clothing or marital rights (kids) she can leave without paying a dime. Hello, you said "in this case, it is one man paying an amount that included the bride price". But I'm sorry, bride price or marriage or anything concerning wedlock was missing in that verse. It says it explicitly to be "sold as a maidservant". How can someone imagine that anything concerning wedlock can be described in this manner or that the money the father collected can be bride price? To know that the contract was a contract of being a maidservant, the verse says "let her not go out as manservants do". So here the bible was comparing her or referring to her in the same terms as a manservant. So she, being a maidservant should not go out as her "male counterparts" do. It's very clear that the matter here is a matter of the man selling his daughter to be a maidservant (a wife is never spoken of in such manner). And even you said these yourself that "The law here makes it clear that the man who took the daughter into his house must not treat her unfairly or sell her to a foreign nation. In fact, if he is displeased with her she can be redeemed or redeem herself and go free. And if he mistreats her by denying food, clothing or marital rights (kids) she can leave without paying a dime." All these words you said, can they be used in the concept of a wife or bride price? You said the man who took her must not sell her to a foreign nation. Can someone who was taken in by virtue of bride price which translates to bring a bride be SOLD? Do people sell brides? You said if he's displeased with her, she can redeem herself or be redeemed? Do these processes apply if it's a "bride" that's involved? You said if he mistreats her, she can leave without paying a dime. Does all these also apply if it's a "bride" we are talking about? Its very clear from the verse and even from your explanation that the girl is sold to be a maidservant. Simple. And God was regulating it. So maybe you can clarify all these better to us and those you didn't answer too, if you know the answer. Thank you. |
Re: The Koran Reveals The Identity Of History's Biggest Failure & Promise Breaker by Fasindo: 6:24pm On Feb 20, 2020 |
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Re: The Koran Reveals The Identity Of History's Biggest Failure & Promise Breaker by AntiChristian: 11:18am On Feb 21, 2020 |
ContractKiller: This Hadeeth was reported by Ibn Maajah and others, may Allaah have mercy upon them, and Shaykh Al-Albaani, may Allaah have mercy upon him, classified it as Hasan [good]. It should be noted here that some callers to misguidance provide this Hadeeth as evidence that the Quran is incomplete. As mentioned in the Hadeeth, the paper contained two verses: the verse about breastfeeding and the verse about stoning. So, these callers to misguidance have an evil purpose in providing this Hadeeth as evidence that the Quran is incomplete; but their purpose has failed, praise be to Allaah. Indeed, the scholars, may Allaah have mercy upon them, refuted such misconceptions; for instance Ibn Hazm, may Allaah have mercy upon him, said: “It is confirmed that the wordings of these two verses were abrogated and the paper on which they were written was eaten by the goat, as stated by ‘Aa’ishah, may Allaah be pleased with her. Indeed, there was no need for it....Then he said: “The evidence for this is that they had learnt them (the two verses) by heart and were it known to them that they were still from the Quran, then the fact that this paper was eaten by the goat would not have prevented them from writing them in the compiled copy of the Quran from their memory; praise be to Allaah.” However, the two mentioned verses were abrogated: the verse about breastfeeding was abrogated both in terms of its recitation and its ruling, and the verse about stoning, its recitation was abrogated and its ruling remained in effect. It is for this reason that the Companions, may Allaah be pleased with them, did not write them in the compiled copy of the Quran. This is what Ibn Hazm, may Allaah have mercy upon him, meant. TheExecutioner: You would soon start stealing after all your lies! |
Re: The Koran Reveals The Identity Of History's Biggest Failure & Promise Breaker by AntiChristian: 11:50am On Feb 21, 2020 |
EkunKekere: See this liar! This lies are being spread on FB, reddit, wikiislam, etc. Anyways! If He changed the Qur'an did he recalled the ones that was distributed during the Uthman Era? Did he recall the ones that tens of thousands has memorized as at those period of time? And it was never in any authentic sources that the Qur'an was changed. You can bring your sources and show us the early Qur'an that wasn't changed. https://ghamidi.tv/articles/narrative-on-the-changes-made-in-the-quran-by-alhajjaj-ibn-yusuf-469 |
Re: The Koran Reveals The Identity Of History's Biggest Failure & Promise Breaker by Charleys: 1:27pm On Feb 21, 2020 |
My question is this? Did Muhammed have sex with a dead woman Yes or No? My reference ---- Hadith 34424 Kanezel omall ----- This is from a book called "Kanz Al Umal" (The Treasure of the Workers), in the chapter of "The issues of women", authored by Ali Ibn Husam Aldin, commonly known as Al-Mutaki Al-Hindi. He based his book on the hadiths and sayings listed in "Al-Jami Al-Saghir," written by Jalal ul-Din Al-Suyuti. Narrated by Ibn Abbas: "I (Muhammad) put on her my shirt that she may wear the clothes of heaven, and I SLEPT with her in her coffin (grave) that I may lessen the pressure of the grave. She was the best of Allah’s creatures to me after Abu Talib"… The prophet was referring to Fatima , the mother of Ali. The Arabic scholar Demetrius explains : "The Arabic word used here for "slept" is "Id'tajat," and literally means "lay down" with her. It is often used to mean, "lay down to have sex." Muhammad is understood as saying that because he slept with her she has become like a wife to him so she will be considered like a "mother of the believers." This will supposedly prevent her from being tormented in the grave, since Muslims believed that as people wait for the Judgment Day they will be tormented in the grave. "Reduce the pressure" here means that the torment won't be as much because she is now a "mother of the believers" after Muhammad slept with her and "consummated" the union." ] 2 Likes 1 Share |
Re: The Koran Reveals The Identity Of History's Biggest Failure & Promise Breaker by EkunKekere: 1:43pm On Feb 21, 2020 |
Well, the only interpretation of the Bible which matters, particularly when it comes to the Old Testament is how the Jewish Rabbis interpreted it, since only the moral law applies to Christians. In fact, were it not for your attempt to use the Bible as your justification for the koran, you might have read the complete passage from Exodus 21:7-11 where it is clear that the master of the maidservant is not allowed to sleep with her since sex outside of marriage is unlawful and he was expected to release her if eventually he had no intention of marrying and he was expected to feed and cloth her. Can you compare Exodus 21 with the shameless conduct of one agbaya fake "prophet" who was always having sex with his female servants even though he never wanted to marry them? Can you explain what this Hot bastard was up to when he was doing things like this: Tabari's History, volume 39, page 194: "He (Muhammad) used to visit her (Mariyam) there and ordered her to veil herself, [but] he had intercourse with her by virtue of her being his property." The note (845) on this says, "That is, Mariyah was ordered to veil herself as did the Prophet's wives, but he did not marry her." IAmStrange: Wow, so Abraham of all people had an illegitimate child which means a child born out of adultery? I'm not surprised. This is not the first time you people cast aspersions on the image of Prophets of God. As for Ishmael, I know how pained you headslammers are because your fake ancestor was an illegitimate offspring Sorry about that But you see, Ish became illegitimate as soon as the legitimate son, Isaac, was born. God never intended for Abraham to have illegitimate children. He wanted all of Abraham's offspring to be born in lawful wedlock. So even though he was a bastard, Ishmael was never treated like one until he began to overstep his boundary and Sarah had no choice but to throw him and his mother out. Hello, you said "in this case, it is one man paying an amount that included the bride price". But I'm sorry, bride price or marriage or anything concerning wedlock was missing in that verse. |
Re: The Koran Reveals The Identity Of History's Biggest Failure & Promise Breaker by ContractKiller: 9:40pm On Feb 21, 2020 |
[img]https://images./64asQLsEBKzD4DsVUCquxX.jpg[/img] [img]https://images./2ZUJek1CPByCVoD4WETBxy.jpg[/img] [img]https://images./1iJex7RR9ABwCWcY7KdrF2.jpg[/img] [img]https://images./683OT1txtqjNMzk79XkHg5.jpg[/img] IAmStrange: |
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