All praise is to Allah, the Beneficent the Mercifu, Who is Cherisher and Sustainer of the Universe.
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For the last 14th centuries, the Qur'an has occupied a unique place among the existing scriptures. Its strong appeal and un-parallelled influence upon its readers has, at times, led the people of narrow mind and biased outlook to sow seeds of doubts about its authenticity as a Divine Revelation.

Public libraries and bookstores of the secular world abound literature depicting the Quran as a human work produced by an 'imposter' of prophethood. The contribution of the so called 'orientalists' of the West in promoting this theory has been so great that they ignored all norms of objectivity and fairness.

They have put in immense effort and hard work to reach their objective of misguiding innocent simple minded people under the guise of scientific research. Sometimes they have preferred to employ human tools bearing Muslim-like names for their purpose to prove their point, showing thereby that 'broad minded' 'progressive' Muslims subscribe to the proposition that they had so laboriously developed.

I would like to explain on some critical issues on how they used it to misguiding innocent simple minded people. Inshaallahu, I would shed more light on the following topic;
1. Muhammad as the Author

2.Materials Gain as the Motive

3. Desire for power and glory

4. Unity for power and glory

5. Moral Reformation

6. Unconscious Fabrication

7. Epileptic Theory

8. The Religion Illusion Theory

9. From Jewish and Christian Sources

10. The problem of parables

11.The theory of Divine Revelation

12. Scientific Data

I smell Taqiyya: Islamic doctrine of deceit to defend and promote Islam...

1.MUHAMMAD AS THE AUTHOR

The Quran states explicity:26:192-93
26:192:Verily this is a Revelation from the Lord of the Worlds:
26:193:With it came down the spirit of Faith and Truth-

Moreover its style of address gives the impression that it emanates from the Creator to the creature. All chapters except chapter nine, begin with formular: IN THE NAME OF GOD, MOST GRACIOUS, MOST MERCIFUL'. The address is in the first Person and in numerous places God commands Muhammad (SWA) to say, I.e "Qul. Infact this command to say appear 332 times in the Quran. Other imperatives like "proclaim yourself" "proclaim" or "recite", "glorify your Lord" and many others have also been used.

The Quran nevertheless goes on to make a categorical assertion that no human being or jin can produce it: 17:88
Say: "If the whole of mankind and Jinns were to gather together to produce the like of this Qur'an, they could not produce the like thereof, even if they backed up each other with help and support.

Quran also spells out the method of disproving it for those who doubt its divine sources:
2:23:And if ye are in doubt as to what We have revealed from time to time to Our servant, then produce a Sura like thereunto; and call your witnesses or helpers (If there are any) besides Allah, if your (doubts) are true

2:24:But if ye cannot- and of a surety ye cannot- then fear the Fire whose fuel is men and stones,- which is prepared for those who reject Faith.


RESPONDING TO THE CHARGE THAT MOHAMMAD WAS THE AUTHOR, Quran command him to reply back:
10:15:But when Our Clear Signs are rehearsed unto them, those who rest not their hope on their meeting with Us, Say: "Bring us a reading other than this, or change this," Say: "It is not for me, of my own accord, to change it: I follow naught but what is revealed unto me: if I were to disobey my Lord, I should myself fear the penalty of a Great Day (to come)."

10:16:Say: "If Allah had so willed, I should not have rehearsed it to you, nor would He have made it known to you. A whole life-time before this have I tarried amongst you: will ye not then understand?"

Muhammad had lived amongst them for 40yrs, without showing any signs of great learning or even a flair for poetry; he was in fact illiterate. How could they explain the fact that now he recited the Quran which is unparalleled in sublimity? In fact addressing Muhammad himself the Quran says:

29:48:And thou wast not (able) to recite a Book before this (Book came), nor art thou (able) to transcribe it with thy right hand: In that case, indeed, would the talkers of vanities have doubted.

Apart from these Quotation from the Quran Muhammad(SWA) himself did make several statements to the effect that he was not the author of the Quran.


TO BE CONTINUED....

MATERIAL GAIN AS THE MOTIVE

Nevertheless, one might argue that the easiest way is not always the best. Probably, Muhammad(saw) was after big game, he therefore attributed the Quran to God in order to benefit more.. This hypothesis is however, at variance with historical evidence.

Muhammad(saw) financial position was better off b4 than after his prophethood. When he was 25 (15 yrs before he claimed prophethood) he married and lived comfortably with Khadijah who was a rich businesswoman. After his prophethood his financial position and life standard was unenvitable.

In a collection of Hadith by An-Nawawi, one of the Muhammad's wives, Aisha, Narrates that a month or two month would go by without fire being lit in their house becos there was nothing to cook. They survive on date and water. Sometimes this diet was supplemented with goat milk from the people of madina.

In fact there was a sort of protest by his wives as to why they shud go on living in poor condition when they could wallow in luxury. The Prophet was disturbed by his discontent. A revelation came commanding him to tell his wifes to choose either God and His messenger or the fleeting glitter of this world:
33:28:O Prophet! Say to thy Consorts: "If it be that ye desire the life of this World, and its glitter,- then come! I will provide for your enjoyment and set you free in a handsome manner

33:29:But if ye seek Allah and His Apostle, and the Home of the Hereafter, verily Allah has prepared for the well-doers amongst you a great reward.


Someone had also inquired of Aisha about the bedding of the prophet in her house. Her reply was: "it comprises of leather filled with the bark of dateipalm"

It has also been reported that at the time of his death and in spite of all his victories and achievements, Muhammad(saw) was in debt, and his shield was in the hands of a Jewish citizen of Madina as a collateral for that debt.


There are numerous other citations which show that Muhammad(saw) had lived a consistently frugal life from the beginning of his apostleship until his death. The ideal that he was after material gain is inconsistent with historical evidence.

As the NEW CATHOLIC ENCYCLOPEDIA OBSERVES: " A case has been made that mere economic gain was the inspiration for Muhammad's religious revolution. That case does not suit the facts as they are known (new catholic encylopedia, vol. IX, p. 1001)



TO BE CONTINUED.....

DESIRE FOR POWER AND GLORY

The suggestion that Muhammad(saw) was actuated by a desire for power and glory is difficult to sustain. To begin with, Muhammad(saw) has universally been acknowledge as one of the most successful leaders in human history. A man with his qualities could claim leadership and assume power even without claiming prophethood. In fact it would have been easier that way.

Secondly, the Quran states very clearly that no one including Muhammad himself can produce anything similar to the Quran. If he were after power and glory he would have claimed authorship of the Quran whose beauty and sublimity dwarfed all other books.

Despite his social standing as the Prophet and his heavy responsibilities as a stateman, Muhammad(saw) used to help with domestic chores. He mended his garments, repaired his shoes and milked his goat. He talked and listened patiently to anyone who approached him. So much so that the Quran says his dettactors complained saying:

9:61:Among them are men who molest the Prophet and say, "He is (all) ear." Say, "He listens to what is best for you: he believes in Allah, has faith in the Believers, and is a Mercy to those of you who believe." But those who molest the Apostle will have a grievous penalty.

It has also been reported that once some people came to the Prophet and addressed him in the following words; "O messenger of Allah, best of us and the son of the best of us, our leader and son of our leader" His reply was;

O people, say what you said previously or part of it and do not let Satan mislead you. I am Mahammad a slave of Allah and His Messenger. I do not like your raising my status above the status which Allah, the Might and Glorious, has given me.

The death of Muhammad(saw) most beloved son Ibrahim coincided with the eclipse of the sun and people regarded it as a miracle from God that heavens and earth were mourning the death of ibrahim. Muhammad was very angry with them and said;
"The sun and the moon are two signs out of God's sign. They are not eclipsed because of the death or birth of any human being"


Muhammad(saw) forbade people to make his graveyard a place of worship, saying, "Do not make my grade a site for festivals" and he prayed to his Lord, "O my Lord, do not let my grave be made into an idol to be worshipped" And he categorically warned Muslims not overpraise him: Do not glorify me in the same manner as the Christians glorify Jesus, son of mary, but say, He is a slave of Allah and His Messenger. (Hadith)

Why should he author a book which command him to declare to the people that he was a powerless and had no knowledge of unseen;
Q7:188:Say: "I have no power over any good or harm to myself except as Allah willeth. If I had knowledge of the unseen, I should have multiplied all good, and no evil should have touched me: I am but a warner, and a bringer of glad tidings to those who have faith."

Or why should he authored a book which command him to say he had come with no new doctrine nor did he expect that such Book would revealed to him and he should therefore announce to the people that he is a mere human being like any other human being;
46:9:Say: "I am no bringer of new-fangled doctrine among the apostles, nor do I know what will be done with me or with you. I follow but that which is revealed to me by inspiration; I am but a Warner open and clear."



If the desire for power had motivated Muhammad(saw) to consciously compose the Quran then it is very difficult to account for the existence of such verses



TO BE CONTINUED.....

IS YAHWEH REFERRED TO IN THE QURAN

There are Christians who tend to make a point that the Bible mentions in Exodus 3:14 that the name of God is “Yahweh” or “Jehovah” (depends on where one puts the vowels) but this name does not appear in the Quran. Hence they claim that the Quran cannot be the Word of God and Prophet Muhammad (saw) cannot be a Messenger of God, because there is no reference to the personal name of God which appears in the Old Testament 6823 times

YHWH (Yahweh) in the Bible

Let’s first read the concerned verse in the Bible in context:

Moses said to God, "Suppose I go to the Israelites and say to them, 'The God of your fathers has sent me to you,' and they ask me, 'What is his name?' Then what shall I tell them?"

God said to Moses, "I am who I am. This is what you are to say to the Israelites: 'I AM has sent me to you.'"

God also said to Moses, "Say to the Israelites, 'The LORD, the God of your fathers—the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac and the God of Jacob—has sent me to you.' This is my name forever, the name by which I am to be remembered from generation to generation. – [Exodus 3:13-15]


Yahweh/Jehovah, to prove that he is really a Messenger of God.

“Yahweh” and “Jehovah” are two pronunciations formed by humans much later. Although the Jewish Encyclopedia labels the word “Jehovah” to be a philological impossibility, the Christian world tends to use this pronunciation till this day. Coming back to the pronunciation of this word YHWH, the Catholic Encyclopedia brings it to our attention:

“According to a Rabbinic tradition the real pronunciation of Jehovah ceased to be used at the time of Simeon the Just, who was, according to Maimonides, a contemporary of Alexander the Great. At any rate, it appears that the name was no longer pronounced after the destruction of the Temple.”

Moreover we are also informed by the same encyclopedia that “the modern Jews are as uncertain of the real pronunciation of the Sacred name as their Christian contemporaries”.

Hence one thing has been made apparent that neither the Jews nor the Christians know the true pronunciation of this word. This word was considered to be ineffable by the Jews and thus with time people lost the knowledge of its true pronunciation.


Meaning of YHWH (Yahweh)

As it was made apparent that we do not know how to pronounce the word “YHWH”, we must now look and understand what this word means so as to get an understanding of the word itself. The Jewish Encyclopedia informs us that the meaning of the name “YHWH” is “‘He who is self-existing, self-sufficient’, or, more concretely, ‘He who lives’”. Hence in simplest of terms “YHWH” means The Living and Self-Subsisting.


Did Jesus use the name YHWH?

Up till now two things have been made clear; the real pronunciation of the word is not available and that the meaning of this word is “self-existing and self sufficient”, in short “He who lives”. So now it must be established whether Jesus did use this name Yahweh in any place. The only verse which Christendom can quote to prove that Jesus used this word is in the Gospel of John which is as below:

“I tell you the truth,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!” – [John 8:58]

As we see that the verse consists of the phrase “I am”, the Christians say that Jesus has used the word YHWH. So let us take a look at the Greek version of the verse as we all know that the biblical manuscripts with the Christian world are in the language Greek although there is no concrete evidence that Jesus knew this language


The words translated as “I am” are: ἐγώ εἰμί

Transliterated as: egō eimi

Pronounced as: eg-o' i-mee'


TO BE CONTINUED

Huu, this is getting serious o. I reserve my comment

IS YAHWEH REFERRED TO IN THE QURAN

There are Christians who tend to make a point that the Bible mentions in Exodus 3:14 that the name of God is “Yahweh” or “Jehovah” (depends o[quote author=ayenny02]IS YAHWEH REFERRED TO IN THE QURAN

There are Christians who tend to make a point that the Bible mentions in Exodus 3:14 that the name of God is “Yahweh” or “Jehovah” (depends on where one puts the vowels) but this name does not appear in the Quran. Hence they claim that the Quran cannot be the Word of God and Prophet Muhammad (saw) cannot be a Messenger of God, because there is no reference to the personal name of God which appears in the Old Testament 6823 times

YHWH (Yahweh) in the Bible

Let’s first read the concerned verse in the Bible in context:

Moses said to God, "Suppose I go to the Israelites and say to them, 'The God of your fathers has sent me to you,' and they ask me, 'What is his name?' Then what shall I tell them?"

God said to Moses, "I am who I am. This is what you are to say to the Israelites: 'I AM has sent me to you.'"

God also said to Moses, "Say to the Israelites, 'The LORD, the God of your fathers—the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac and the God of Jacob—has sent me to you.' This is my name forever, the name by which I am to be remembered from generation to generation. – [Exodus 3:13-15]


Yahweh/Jehovah, to prove that he is really a Messenger of God.

“Yahweh” and “Jehovah” are two pronunciations formed by humans much later. Although the Jewish Encyclopedia labels the word “Jehovah” to be a philological impossibility, the Christian world tends to use this pronunciation till this day. Coming back to the pronunciation of this word YHWH, the Catholic Encyclopedia brings it to our attention:

“According to a Rabbinic tradition the real pronunciation of Jehovah ceased to be used at the time of Simeon the Just, who was, according to Maimonides, a contemporary of Alexander the Great. At any rate, it appears that the name was no longer pronounced after the destruction of the Temple.”

Moreover we are also informed by the same encyclopedia that “the modern Jews are as uncertain of the real pronunciation of the Sacred name as their Christian contemporaries”.

Hence one thing has been made apparent that neither the Jews nor the Christians know the true pronunciation of this word. This word was considered to be ineffable by the Jews and thus with time people lost the knowledge of its true pronunciation.


Meaning of YHWH (Yahweh)

As it was made apparent that we do not know how to pronounce the word “YHWH”, we must now look and understand what this word means so as to get an understanding of the word itself. The Jewish Encyclopedia informs us that the meaning of the name “YHWH” is “‘He who is self-existing, self-sufficient’, or, more concretely, ‘He who lives’”. Hence in simplest of terms “YHWH” means The Living and Self-Subsisting.


Did Jesus use the name YHWH?

Up till now two things have been made clear; the real pronunciation of the word is not available and that the meaning of this word is “self-existing and self sufficient”, in short “He who lives”. So now it must be established whether Jesus did use this name Yahweh in any place. The only verse which Christendom can quote to prove that Jesus used this word is in the Gospel of John which is as below:

“I tell you the truth,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!” – [John 8:58]
[quote author=ayenny02]IS YAHWEH REFERRED TO IN THE QURAN

There are Christians who tend to make a point that the Bible mentions in Exodus 3:14 that the name of God is “Yahweh” or “Jehovah” (depends on where one puts the vowels) but this name does not appear in the Quran. Hence they claim that the Quran cannot be the Word of God and Prophet Muhammad (saw) cannot be a Messenger of God, because there is no reference to the personal name of God which appears in the Old Testament 6823 times

YHWH (Yahweh) in the Bible

Let’s first read the concerned verse in the Bible in context:

Moses said to God, "Suppose I go to the Israelites and say to them, 'The God of your fathers has sent me to you,' and they ask me, 'What is his name?' Then what shall I tell them?"

God said to Moses, "I am who I am. This is what you are to say to the Israelites: 'I AM has sent me to you.'"

God also said to Moses, "Say to the Israelites, 'The LORD, the God of your fathers—the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac and the God of Jacob—has sent me to you.' This is my name forever, the name by which I am to be remembered from generation to generation. – [Exodus 3:13-15]


Yahweh/Jehovah, to prove that he is really a Messenger of God.

“Yahweh” and “Jehovah” are two pronunciations formed by humans much later. Although the Jewish Encyclopedia labels the word “Jehovah” to be a philological impossibility, the Christian world tends to use this pronunciation till this day. Coming back to the pronunciation of this word YHWH, the Catholic Encyclopedia brings it to our attention:

“According to a Rabbinic tradition the real pronunciation of Jehovah ceased to be used at the time of Simeon the Just, who was, according to Maimonides, a contemporary of Alexander the Great. At any rate, it appears that the name was no longer pronounced after the destruction of the Temple.”

Moreover we are also informed by the same encyclopedia that “the modern Jews are as uncertain of the real pronunciation of the Sacred name as their Christian contemporaries”.

Hence one thing has been made apparent that neither the Jews nor the Christians know the true pronunciation of this word. This word was considered to be ineffable by the Jews and thus with time people lost the knowledge of its true pronunciation.


Meaning of YHWH (Yahweh)

As it was made apparent that we do not know how to pronounce the word “YHWH”, we must now look and understand what this word means so as to get an understanding of the word itself. The Jewish Encyclopedia informs us that the meaning of the name “YHWH” is “‘He who is self-existing, self-sufficient’, or, more concretely, ‘He who lives’”. Hence in simplest of terms “YHWH” means The Living and Self-Subsisting.


Did Jesus use the name YHWH?

Up till now two things have been made clear; the real pronunciation of the word is not available and that the meaning of this word is “self-existing and self sufficient”, in short “He who lives”. So now it must be established whether Jesus did use this name Yahweh in any place. The only verse which Christendom can quote to prove that Jesus used this word is in the Gospel of John which is as below:

“I tell you the truth,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!” – [John 8:58]





The summary of the above is; YAHWEH = ALLAH
JEHOVAH = ALLAH
I AM = ALLAH

Even to an slowpoke, there was/is no any of this could sound like allah in pronounciation. Continue anyway, the first commentatory actually smelled taqqiyah.

Consider the below, hope you are not trying to shoot yourself in the leg :


"I am no bringer of new-fangled doctrine among the apostles, nor do I know what will be done with me or with you".

firebrand: Consider the below, hope you are not trying to shoot yourself in the leg :


"I am no bringer of new-fangled doctrine among the apostles, nor do I know what will be done with me or with you".

That verse of d Quran just explain that the Quran was from God not the Prophet' word

Quran 46:9 Verse 46:9 Say (Prophet Muhammad), “I am not different from the (other) messengers (of God) and I do not know what shall be done (by God) with me or with you. I only follow what is revealed to me and I am only a clear warner.”

CONTINUATION FROM YAHWEH......

"GOD" in Arabic and Aramaic sound the same

The following translation is found at bible.crosswalk.com:

Thee KJV Old Testament Hebrew Lexicon
Strong's Number: 0426
Original Word: hhla
Word Origin: corresponding to (0433)
Transliterated Word: 'elahh (Aramaic)'
Phonetic Spelling: 'el-aw'
Parts of Speech: Noun Masculine

Several points to learn:

1. "elahh" is the way the word "hhla" (spelled from right to left as it is Aramaic) is pronounced.

2. The words "Elahh", "hhla (read from right to left)" and "Allah" all have the "h" letter and pronunciation in them.

3- "Allah" in Arabic is pronounced as "Al-lawh" or "Al-lah" depending on the sentence that it is used in.  In Arabic, the sound of the word "Allah" could be thicker (Allawh) or thinner (Allah) depending on the sentence.

4- The Aramaic word "hhla (read from right to left)", which is transliterated as "elahh" which means "GOD" is pronounced as "El-aw" as show above.

5- The Aramaic word "hla (read from right to left)", which is transliterated as "elah" which means "oak" is pronounced as "Ay-law" also as shown above.

6- "Allah" in Arabic is pronounced as "Al-lawh" or "Al-lah" depending on the sentence that it is used in.  In Arabic, the sound of the word "Allah" could be thicker (Allawh) or thinner (Allah) depending on the sentence.

7- The Hebew word "Elohim" is the plural of "Elowah", which is derived from the Aramaic word "Alaha", or "Elahh"; the same as the Arabic word "Allah" or "Allawh" in pronunciation. 

If we pronounce the words "Allah" in Arabic and "Elahh (pronounced as 'El-aw')" in Aramaic, then we would hear almost the same exact word


In Arabic it is important to know that the letter "h" is inserted at the end of every word that ends with the "a" sound.  For instance, take the name "Osama".   Although it is pronounced as "Osama", but in Arabic it is written as "Osamah".  If you pronounce "Osama" and pay close attention to your pronunciation, then you would notice that you are pronouncing it as "Osamah".  There is a small "h" pronunciation at the end of it.   Take another example "Maria".  In Arabic, it is written as "Mariah", because of the slight "h" pronunciation at the end of it.   "Angela" is also written as "Angelah" and so on.  Arabic does not ignore the slight "h" pronunciation at the end of the words that have the "a" sound at the end of them.

In the case of "Allah".  In Arabic, it is in many cases pronounced heavily as "Alla" and slightly as "Allah" unless the person purposely pronounces the "h", which would then be pronounced heavily as "Allah".  

In the case of the Aramaic word "El-law (hhla)" above, if you pronouce the word, then you will notice a slight pronunciation of the letter "h".  The pronunciation of the word "El-law" is pronounced heavily as "El-law" or "El-la", but it is also pronounced slightly as "El-lah" or "El-lawh" or "Al-lah" or "Allah".  Arabic as I said inserts the letter "h" at the end of the words that end with the "a" pronunciation, thus making "Osama" be "Osamah", "Maria" be "Mariah", "Alla" be "Allah", etc...

"El-law" or "El-lawh" in Aramaic means "GOD", while "Eloi" in Aramaic means "My GOD" as Jesus used the word "Eloi" when he was put on the cross and said "My GOD My GOD why have you forsaken me? (Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachtani?)....(Mark 15:34)"

In Arabic, "GOD" means "Allah", and "My GOD" means "Ilahi" or "Elahi" which is derived from the word "Allah".



TO BE CONTINUD.......

More Aramaic references that prove the original name for GOD Almighty was indeed "Allah":

The following is from The state of Assyria Aramaic web site.  When you visit their site, click on "Search" at the top blue bar, then click on the "Search Aramaic Lexicon (online directory" link, then type in "God" and click on "English word" radio button.

Word: hl0
Lexeme: 0hl0
Root: hl0
Word Number: 904
Meaning: God
Pronunciation: (Eastern) AaLaH
(Western) AaLoH
Part of Speech: Noun
Gender: Masculine
Person:
Number: Singular
State: Absolute

Lexicon
Word: 0hl0
Lexeme: 0hl0
Root: hl0
Word Number: 905
Meaning: God
Pronunciation: (Eastern) AaLaHaA
(Western) AaLoHoA
Part of Speech: Noun
Gender: Masculine
Person:
Number: Singular
State: Emphatic


Few points to learn:

1- In the case of "Aalah" or "Aaloh" Aramaic slang pronounciation, it is almost the same as the "Allah" or "Allawh" Arabic slang pronounciation.

2- In the case of "Aalahaa" or "Aalohaa" Aramaic slang pronounciation, it is also almost the same as the "Allaha" or "Allawha" in the Arabic slang pronounciation.  "Allah" would be pronounced as "Allaha" or "Allaha" in Arabic if it's used in the middle of the sentence.  It can also be pronounced as "Allahi" or "Allahu" or "Allaho" depending on the grammar of the sentence.

3- The Hebew word "Elohim" is the plural of "Elowah", which is derived from the Aramaic word "Alaha", or "Elahh"; the same as the Arabic word "Allah" or "Allawh" in pronunciation.

As I mentioned above, by the way, the two "l"s in "Allah" are written in Arabic as one "l".  In Arabic, if the letter is pronounced twice after each others such as the "m" in "Muhammad", then it is written only once, and a special punctuation called "al-shaddah" is applied on the top of the letter to indicate that it is a double pronunciation.  So the point is, the Arabic "Allah" is written with one "l" and not two "l"s.  Perhaps the old Aramaic thousands of years ago was like that too, and maybe that's why "Allah" is written with one "l" in Aramaic ("Aalah" and not "Aallah" or "Allah"



MY QUESTION FOR ALL CHRISTIANS; WHICH LANGUAGE DID JESUS USED FOR PREACHING?

Arabian gods were known by such names as Allah, Mohammad destroyed all except one and that is a black stone of kabba and abdul muttalid named his son abdulai which means servant of allah, this is pointer to the fact that abdul muttalib the great arabian occultist was a worshipper of allah b4 islam.

john_tredon: Arabian gods were known by such names as Allah, Mohammad destroyed all except one and that is a black stone of kabba and abdul muttalid named his son abdulai which means servant of allah, this is pointer to the fact that abdul muttalib the great arabian occultist was a worshipper of allah b4 islam.

Those statement are fallacy. Thus it lacks an authoritative reference. It was those christian that inserted the noblest name "Allah" into the names of the Arabian gods.

Allah the Almighty is an idol in the common sense of d christian as shown in the statements. If all christian agree with those statement, then all of them, have agreed that Jesus Christ is a son of an idol.
This is confirmed in the Arabic translation of john 3:16 in the Bible published by the Gideons Int. Let us read as follows:

"For God so loved the world that he gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life"

The Arabic translation of the above by the christian bible themselves is as below:
16 فَقَدْ أحَبَّ اللهُ العالَمَ كَثِيْراً، حَتَّى إنَّهُ قَدَّمَ ابْنَهُ الوَحِيْدَ، لِكَيْ لا يَهلِكَ كُلُّ مَنْ يُؤْمِنُ بِهِ، بَلْ تَكُونُ لَهُ الحَياةُ الأبَدِيَّةُ.


The point of interest in the above John 3:16 is that the christian translated God to Allah. Then, is Allah an idol or God?

Therefore if the christian believe that it is wrong for them to call Allah an idol, they shuld publish repentance on this case against Allah, the true God.

very informative ... hmm

john_tredon: Arabian gods were known by such names as Allah, Mohammad destroyed all except one and that is a black stone of kabba and abdul muttalid named his son abdulai which means servant of allah, this is pointer to the fact that abdul muttalib the great arabian occultist was a worshipper of allah b4 islam.

The statement is not true at all based on four cogent points as below
Point one: Abdullah is a son of Abdul-muttolid, Abdul-l-Muttolib is a son of Haashim. Haashim is a son of Abdul-l-Munaaf. Abdul-l-Munaaf is a son Qusoyy. If it is automatic that every name attached to the prefix "Abdul" denotes an idol or god being worshipped by the concerned family, then Muttolib shall be the name of god that his father, Haashim worshipped. Also, if it is authentic that every name attached to the prefix "Abdul" denotes an idol or god worshipped by the concerned family, then Manaf shall be the name of god that is father, Qasayy worshipped. Neither Muttolib nor Manaf was a god of the arabs. So, whenever a compound name is made up of "Abdul" and another noun, it is either in sense of a worshipper and what or Who being worshipped, or in the senses of ther thing, as in the case of abdul-muttolib and Abdul-Manaaf. But the case Abdul-muttolib naming his son Abdul-llah has ni authoritative reference which indicates that Abdul-Muttolib named his son Abdul-llah because he worshipped Allah, true God.
Neither Abdul-l-Muttalib nor Abdul-llah worship Allah. Let us now know more abt how abdul-muttolid was named that compound noun, as in reference of Ar-Rashheq Al-Makhum (The sealed Nectar) vol 1, pages 51-52:


His father was Hāshim ibn `Abd Manāf and his mother was Salmah bint `Amr from the Banū Najjār tribe in Yathrib (later called, Madinah). On his father's side he belonged to the distinguished Banū Hāshim clan, a subgroup of the Quraish tribe of Makkah which traced their genealogy to Ismā'īl and Ibrāhīm. His father died while doing business in Gaza, before he was born.

He was given the name "Shaybah" meaning 'the ancient one' or 'white-haired' for the streak of white through his jet-black hair

After his father's death he was raised in Yathrib with his mother and her family until about the age of eight, when his uncle Muttolib went to see him and asked his mother Salmah bint `Amr to entrust Shaybah to his care. Salmah was unwilling to let her son go and Shaybah refused to leave his mother without her consent.

Upon first arriving in Makkah, the people assumed the unknown child was Muttalib's slave, giving him the name `Abdu'l-Muttalib (slave of Muttalib). When Muttalib died, Shaybah succeeded him as the chief of the Banū Hāshim clan.

Can you see why Arabs called Shaebah, Abdul-Muttalib; they thought he was a slave purchased by Al-Muttolib, not that Muttolid is a god or idol. Any contrary view is therefore null and void.

john_tredon: Arabian gods were known by such names as Allah, Mohammad destroyed all except one and that is a black stone of kabba and abdul muttalid named his son abdulai which means servant of allah, this is pointer to the fact that abdul muttalib the great arabian occultist was a worshipper of allah b4 islam.

Point two: Whoever worships Allah must be a muslim. Abdul-l-Muttalib was never a Muslim. He was an idolater and died as an idolater.

The noblest name "Allah" is not uncommon among the arabian pagans. It is in their vocabulary. It is a name know to them since Prophet Adam (AS) was on the surface of land. More precisely, the Arabian pagans have fake ideas about Islam before the advent of the Prophet Muhammad (saw). This is so because Prophet Ismail (as), the father of the Arabs was a Muslim by religion.

So if any pagans Arab names his son Abdu-llah, it is not because he worships Allah, nor does it mean that such parent believes in Allah. But pagans Arab do so , because "Allah" is part of their vocabulary.

[quote author=ayenny02]
Those statement are fallacy. Thus it lacks an authoritative reference. It was those christian that inserted the noblest name "Allah" into the names of the Arabian gods.

Allah the Almighty is an idol in the common sense of d christian as shown in the statements. If all christian agree with those statement, then all of them, have agreed that Jesus Christ is a son of an idol.
This is confirmed in the Arabic translation of john 3:16 in the Bible published by the Gideons Int. Let us read as follows:

"For God so loved the world that he gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life"

The Arabic translation of the above by the christian bible themselves is as below:
16 فَقَدْ أحَبَّ اللهُ العالَمَ كَثِيْراً، حَتَّى إنَّهُ قَدَّمَ ابْنَهُ الوَحِيْدَ، لِكَيْ لا يَهلِكَ كُلُّ مَنْ يُؤْمِنُ بِهِ، بَلْ تَكُونُ لَهُ الحَياةُ الأبَدِيَّةُ.


The point of interest in the above John 3:16 is that the christian translated God to Allah. Then, is Allah an idol or God?

Therefore if the christian believe that it is wrong for them to call Allah an idol, they shuld publish repentance on this case against Allah, the true God.

[/quote


It is not acceptable to change the meaning of Abdullai/Abdu-allah in the year 2013. The meaning had been and will continue to be 'servant of Allah'. Why should a change be accepted as Arab language has not changed?

Whatever special Deity people believe in and worship they call their God. Have you heard of 'god of thunder', 'god of iron' etc. We use small 'g' because we don't believe them as God but for their servants, they believe them as 'God'.

Abdullai, Muhammad's father name means servant of Allah. He was known to be an idol worshiper serving Allah. This means Allah was his idol which he believed to be his creator. The 'black stone' was the image of his Allah. The black stone was the image of the 'god' of the hanifans (including Abdulai) which they were refering to as their true God (Allah).

When Muhammad returned to Mecca in victory over his opposers (other idol worshipers) who believed he was trying to impose Allah, the god of father on them, he destroyed all other people's idols in Kaaba and retained the one belonging to his father - the 'black stone'.

The black stone had been in existence before islam and it is still part of the religion till today.

The reason for confusion is that the Arabs christians do not have any other word for the true God than Allah which was also used by Abdulai, which Muhammad promoted. The Allah referring to the father of Jesus is not the same as the Allah of Muhammad who is an idol which is not a father because he has no children.

Gabriel who gave revelations to Muhammad was the spirit of Abdulai's idol, Satan himself and that was why Muhammad was able to suppress other junior spirits in-charge of other idols.

[quote author=truthman2012][/quote]

Your statement is a fallacy. Thus, it lacks an authoritative reference. It is those anti-islam themselves that inserted the noblest name "Allah" into the names of the Arabian gods

Allah the almighty is an idol in the common sense of you as clearly shown in the above statement from truthmann2012. If all christians agree with him, then all of them, have agreed that Jesus christ is a son of an idol. This is confirmed in the Arabic translation of John 3:16.
The point of interest in the Arabic translation of John3:16 is that THE CHRISTIANS TRANSLATED GOD INTO ALLAH. Then is ALLAH an idol or God?

However, Allah the true God is not an idol. Also Jesus Christ (AS) is neither the Lord nor son of Allah. He is nothing but a son of Mary and a Prophet of Allah.

"Allah" was NOT "one of the gods" of the pre-Islamic Arabs, but was recognised by them as the supreme, abstract God. There was no idol which they called "Allah". The Quran quotes the idol-worshippers as presenting the argument that:

"We worship them (i.e. the idols) only so that they may bring us nearer to Allah." (39:3)

So, if any pagan Arab names his son Abdul-llah, it is not because he worship Allah, nor does it mean that such parent believes in Allah. But the pagan Arabs do so, because "Allah" is part of their vocabulary as Supreme God.
Here are some names which have nothing to do with either religion or worship; Abdul-ddaar "servant of the house", Abdu-Qaes "servant of Qaes", Abdu-ttabik "servant of the cook", Abdu-l-kilaal "servant of kilaal", Abdu-l-Hind "servant of Hind", Abdu-l-Asad "servant of the lion". All these names are in "Ansaabul-l-Ashraaf"

[quote author=truthman2012][/quote]

The black stone (al-Hajar al-Aswan) represents the image of Allah is another blasphemous statement from anti-islam against Allah, the true God. To all muslims, Allah the Almighty has no image, object or shadow that represents His Being on surface of the earth.

The black stone is never worshipped by anybody, muslims or idolaters. No muslims historian counted it as one of the Arabian Idols. It is just part of islamic symbols which deserves respect from the pious.

The black stone is a stone that was brought from the heaven to the earth, it is there inserted in the structure of the Kabba and surrounded with silver frame.

Ibn `Abbas (may Allah be pleased with him) reported that the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) said: “The Black Stone came down from Jannah (Paradise).” (At-Tirmidhi) The hadith is graded as Sahih/Hasan (authentic-good) by Tirmidhi.

The English Geographical association planned to study it, so it asked an English man by the name Richard Francis Burton to travel among the Egyptian pilgrims ,disguising himself in Arabian clothes, His task was to steal a piece from the black stone and he succeeded in stealing three pieces of the black stone which is now preserved in the English Museum in London. When the English scientists studied these pieces, to their amazement, they discovered that these pieces have different chemical structure from meteors and the final conclusion was that this piece is not from even our solar system, it is even different from all the aerolite that found on the earth.

The English traveler embraced Islam and authored a book under the title" My Journey to Mekka"

a)      Firstly, Black stone is certainly divine and was sent down to earth. Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) kissed it as a sign of reverence and honour of the symbol of Allah (swt) as explained in the Quran [22:32 ] “And whoever honors the symbols [i.e., rites] of Allah – indeed, it is from the piety of hearts.”

Thus, muslims are allowed to kiss it anytime, not necessarily during Hajj or Umrah pilgrimage. The kissing is mere kissing in emulation of the prophet (saw) neither for seeking fortune nor for escaping from misfortunes. In this regard, it was reported on the authority of Bukhar from Umar bin Kattaab (may Allah be pleased with him). "Umar kissed the sacred Black stone and said;
"I swear by Allah, surely I known that you are a stone, you can't cause any harm nor can you give any benefit. Had it not been that I saw the Messenger of Allah kissing you, I would not have kissed you".

B) Assuming that the Black Stone is missing for one reason or another, does it render the Tawaf and Pilgrimage invalid and void on such account? Absolutely not. This is exactly what has already happened in the history of Islam. The Karamathians (Arabic: al-Qaramitah), the most un-islamic sect in Islam, had removed the Black Stone during their mad merrymaking in the year 317 AH/980 AD. They carried it away with them to their territory in Al-Ahsa (in the Arabian Gulf). After keeping it there for twenty years, they had returned it back to Makkah in the year 339 AH (see shorter Encyclopedia Leiden 1953, P. 219). In such an event, the Shariah (Law) maintains that the pilgrim shall perform his Tawaf without the Black stone. Instead of the Black Stone, the pilgrim shall touch its place at the corner of the Ka’abah, or point at its spot, and continue his Tawaf. Thus the total absence of the Stone itself makes no difference in the validity of the Tawaf and the Pilgrimage.

If a person decides to perform salaat on the roof of the Ka’abah, the Salaat will be valid. Therefore had we worshipped the Ka’abah then Salaat performed above it would be incorrect; because firstly, the thing worshipped must appear in front and secondly, it is utterly disrespectful and disgraceful to the thing worshipped by standing on top of it.


CONCLUSION
Idol worship means the worship of idols or images that are not God. Ka’aba is a Masjid. The Black Stone is neither an idol nor a representation of God. Whereas, in Islam, Muslims worship one, true Almighty God.  We request our anti-islam brothers and sisters to embrace true monotheism which is free of all polytheistic practices

@ ayenny02

Thanks for your detailed explanations without any word of abuse.

May I ask you some questions. I hope you will not ignore them which is usually the case when muslims on NL cannot defend their faith and not ready to repent. Most times they hide or delete such threads. Skeleton in the cupboard.

1. When did Allah send the black stone - was it pre-islamic period or during Muhammad's time? Your answer to this will go a long way how sincere you are.

2. (a) The impression you created is that the black stone is not so important in islam. Then, why would Allah send something that was not of serious essence?

(b) What is the purpose for Allah sending the black stone?

3. In any culture of the world including Arab's, people kiss what is so dear to them. Kissing is a sign of love and affection. Why would Muhammad kiss the black stone that is of no significance? Why did he so fall in love with it?

Please be brief as much as possible as lengthy write-up is boring.

truthman2012: @ ayenny02

Thanks for your detailed explanations without any word of abuse.

May I ask you some questions. I hope you will not ignore them which is usually the case when muslims on NL cannot defend their faith and not ready to repent. Most times they hide or delete such threads. Skeleton in the cupboard.

1. When did Allah send the black stone - was it pre-islamic period or during Muhammad's time? Your answer to this will go a long way how sincere you are.

2. (a) The impression you created is that the black stone is not so important in islam. Then, why would Allah send something that was not of serious essence?

(b) What is the purpose for Allah sending the black stone?

3. In any culture of the world including Arab's, people kiss what is so dear to them. Kissing is a sign of love and affection. Why would Muhammad kiss the black stone that is of no significance? Why did he so fall in love with it?

Please be brief as much as possible as lengthy write-up is boring.

Question1.: When did Allah send the black stone - was it pre-islamic period or during Muhammad's time? Your answer to this will go a long way how sincere you are.

ANSWER:
The black stone is nothing but a Heavenly object (an asteroid) that GOD Almighty descended on earth to determine the exact location of where His House was going to be built by Abraham and his son Ishmael, peace be upon them. We believe that Prophets Abraham and Ishmael built the Kaaba.  Western Scientists have confirmed that the black stone, which resides near the Kaaba in the Holy City of Mecca, is an outside METEORITE OBJECT!

Question2a) The impression you created is that the black stone is not so important in islam. Then, why would Allah send something that was not of serious essence?
(b) What is the purpose for Allah sending the black stone?


ANSWER:
The Stone is not be worshipped or regarded as anything but a marker.
The Black Stone has had an interesting history during the Islamic period.  In 930 AD a ruler of Bahrain - who belonged to a branch of Ismailism known as the Karmatians - sacked Makkah and carried the Black Stone away for some 70 years until it was ransomed.

In the process, the Black Stone was cracked. It is now held together by a silver band.   The fact that Islam was able to function without the Black Stone for 70 years is one of the best illustrations that it is but a marker for Tawaaf - and NOT an object of worship

B) the purpose for Allah sending the black stone is to determine the exact location of where His House was going to be built by Abraham and his son Ishmael, peace be upon them.

Question3: In any culture of the world including Arab's, people kiss what is so dear to them. Kissing is a sign of love and affection. Why would Muhammad kiss the black stone that is of no significance? Why did he so fall in love with it?


ANSWER:
While Prophet Muhammad peace be upon him kissed the stone before, because it was chosen by Allah Almighty to descend on earth to determine the location of the Kaaba, but that still doesn't make it anything holy.

While there are traditions about kissing or touching the Stone, its real significance is as marker of the point at which one starts the Tawaaf (circumambulation of the Kaaba as part of hajj or omra.)  Even the traditions which talk about kissing or touching the stone are VERY CLEAR that the Stone is JUST A STONE!

Narrated 'Abis bin Rabia:  Umar came near the Black Stone and kissed it and said "NO DOUBT, I KNOW THAT YOU ARE A STONE AND CAN NEITHER BENEFIT ANYONE NOR HARM ANYONE. Had I not seen Allah's Apostle kissing you I would not have kissed you." (Bukhari)


Conclusion:
As I demonstrated and proved above, Islam and the Prophets are far from promoting any form of idol worship. You must never confuse or mix the Worship of GOD Almighty with the worship of man-made idols.

Do Muslims worship the Kaaba?

Let us see what the Quran has to say about the Ka’abah:

The first House (of worship) appointed for men was that at Bakka: Full of blessing and of guidance for all kinds of beings. (Al Quran 3:96-97)

So the Ka’abah was the first Mosque and PLACE OF WORSHIP for the Muslims. A place to worship the one true God.

And [mention, O Muhammad], when We designated for Abraham the site of the House, [saying], "Do not associate anything with Me and purify My House for those who perform Tawaf and those who stand [in prayer] and those who bow and prostrate. (Al Quran 22:26)

The above verse clarifies that Ka’abah is not a place for worshipping idols. In fact when the Ka’abah came back into the hands of the Muslims, the Muslims made sure to get rid of all the idols and idolatry that had been imposed on it by the pagans. Thus saying that “Muslims worship the Ka’abah as an idol” is clearly the most absurd thing ever pronounced in the history of mankind.

We face THE DIRECTION of the Ka’abah during the prayers because Allah (swt) directs us to do so. How in the world does it prove Idol worship?

a) It is mentioned in Surah Baqarah:

"We see the turning of thy face (for guidance) to the heavens: now shall We turn thee to a Qiblah (direction) that shall please thee. Turn then thy face in the direction of the Sacred Mosque: wherever ye are, turn your faces in that direction."
[Al-Qur’an 2:144]

The above verse was revealed 2 years after Hijrah. And until then (i.e. for almost 15 years), the Muslims prayed in the direction of Bait al Muqaddas in Jerusalem. This fact tells us that turning to Ka’abah does not mean worshipping it, but it was only a direction for prayer, similar to that of the mosque in Jerusalem.

b) “And to Allah belongs the East and the West. So wherever you [might] turn, there is the Face of Allah. Indeed, Allah is all-Encompassing and Knowing.” [Al-Quran 2:115]
 
c “Let them worship the Lord of this House, Who has fed them, [saving them] from hunger and made them safe, [saving them] from fear. [Al-Quran 106:3-4]

.

@ayenny02

You said Allah sent the black stone to Abraham and Ishmael to determine the location of where His house would be built. This is one of the confusions we find in the Quran.

Abraham was an Israelite, a Jew. His wife was Sharrah and they had a maid, an Egyptian named Hagai. God promised Abraham that he was going to have a child of covenant and many other children.

When God's promise tarried, Sarrah lost faith and advised Abraham to go into their maid, Hagai in order to have a child. The result was the birth of Ishmael. Not long after, Sarrah too had the promised child, Isaac.

Sarrah, after having her own son told Abraham to drive away Ishmael and his mother. When Abraham was reluctant, God intervened and ordered Abraham to do exactly so. That led to the sending away of Ishmael from Abraham's family.

So, Ishmael and his mother left Abraham family in Israel and they settled in Arabia.

Abraham lived all his live with his legitimate family in Israel. He never abandoned them and migrated to Arabia. He could not have left the promised child and his legitimate wife and live with Ishmael, who God approved his casting away. Otherwise he (Abraham) would be acting against God's instruction, which he never did.

Therefore, how would God send the black stone to Abraham in Arabia when he was not there? How would God choose Arabia, where the cast-out child was living to build His house and not Israel where God's approved family was living?

The above is a proof that Kaaba was not built by Abraham. It was built by idol worshipers, which was incorporated into islam.

@truthman,did abraham(pbuh) committed fornication with hagar? How can you conclude hagar and ismael aren't his legitimate family? Moreover,where's your proof that abraham(pbuh) spent his whole Life in israel? I just need for your statements please.....Peace

truthman2012: @ayenny02

You said Allah sent the black stone to Abraham and Ishmael to determine the location of where His house would be built. This is one of the confusions we find in the Quran.

Abraham was an Israelite, a Jew. His wife was Sharrah and they had a maid, an Egyptian named Hagai. God promised Abraham that he was going to have a child of covenant and many other children.

When God's promise tarried, Sarrah lost faith and advised Abraham to go into their maid, Hagai in order to have a child. The result was the birth of Ishmael. Not long after, Sarrah too had the promised child, Isaac.

Sarrah, after having her own son told Abraham to drive away Ishmael and his mother. When Abraham was reluctant, God intervened and ordered Abraham to do exactly so. That led to the sending away of Ishmael from Abraham's family.

So, Ishmael and his mother left Abraham family in Israel and they settled in Arabia.

Abraham lived all his live with his legitimate family in Israel. He never abandoned them and migrated to Arabia. He could not have left the promised child and his legitimate wife and live with Ishmael, who God approved his casting away. Otherwise he (Abraham) would be acting against God's instruction, which he never did.

Therefore, how would God send the black stone to Abraham in Arabia when he was not there? How would God choose Arabia, where the cast-out child was living to build His house and not Israel where God's approved family was living?

The above is a proof that Kaaba was not built by Abraham. It was built by idol worshipers, which was incorporated into islam.

Before I can answer ur question, pls can you prove to me that Abraham is a jew and back ur statement with authoritative proof because God saia in Quran that;
Then Allah Almighty says the truth about Ibrahim that he was not a Jew or a Christian, but a “Muslim” submitting to the Will of Allah: “Abraham was neither a Jew nor a Christian; rather he was an upright man who had surrendered to Allah (Muslim), and he was not of the idolaters.”(Al `Imran: 67)”

I need proof from u how abraham was a jews

@ ayenny02

Hagar was not Abraham's wife, she was a maid. Other women (including Hagar) who bore children for Abraham were not wives but concubines (Genesis 25:5-6). Concubine means man living with a woman not lawfully married to. Abraham sent all other children away except Isaac, the son from his legitimate wife.So Hagar was not Abraham's legitimate wife.

Abraham was from Mesopotamia (Genesis 24:10). That was his town where he sent his eldest servant to go and get wife for Isaac (Genesis 24:1-4). He lived in Canaan (Gen. 24:3). Sarah lived in Canaan (Gen. 23:2). This shows Abraham was living with his legitimate wife in Israel.

Therefore it is not true that the black stone was sent to Abraham in Arabia. He was not there. The black stone was a 'marker' of the Arabian 'god' - Abdulai's and Muhammad's Allah.

Abraham was a Jew. The Jews are his descendants (seeds) practising his religion (John 8:31-33, John 8:37).

truthman2012: @ ayenny02

Hagar was not Abraham's wife, she was a maid. Other women (including Hagar) who bore children for Abraham were not wives but concubines (Genesis 25:5-6). Concubine means man living with a woman not lawfully married to. Abraham sent all other children away except Isaac, the son from his legitimate wife.So Hagar was not Abraham's legitimate wife.

Abraham was from Mesopotamia (Genesis 24:10). That was his town where he sent his eldest servant to go and get wife for Isaac (Genesis 24:1-4). He lived in Canaan (Gen. 24:3). Sarah lived in Canaan (Gen. 23:2). This shows Abraham was living with his legitimate wife in Israel.

Therefore it is not true that the black stone was sent to Abraham in Arabia. He was not there. The black stone was a 'marker' of the Arabian 'god' - Abdulai's and Muhammad's Allah.

Abraham was a Jew. The Jews are his descendants (seeds) practising his religion (John 8:31-33, John 8:37).

Brother,point of correction.Abraham(pbuh) has only two sons and two wives,not many wives(Galatians 4;22,Genesis 2;1)In the Old Testament,God singled
out the descendants of Ishmael (the Arabs) for a particular blessing:
“And, as for Ishmael, I have heard you: I will surely bless him;I will
make him fruitful and will greatly increase his numbers. He will be
the father of twelve rulers, and I will make him into a great
nation” [Genesis 17: 20].If hagar and ismael(pbuh)aren't abraham(pbuh)'s legitimate family,why would God promise to bless ismael(pbuh) and make his nation(arabs)great? Do you even realised the first fruit of abraham(pbuh)was ismael(pbuh),he can never abandon his first fruit The book of
Genesis tells us that Abraham left his wife (Hagar) and Ishmael to
settle in ‘Paran’ (Genesis 21:21),which according to historians is in
Arabia.God promised to make ismael(pbuh) too a great nation,so for this promise to come to pass,abraham(pbuh) accompany hagar and ismael(pbuh) to the arabian peninsula,he never chased them away.When abraham(pbuh) wanted to lay the foundations of the kabba,he came to arabia to visit ismael(pbuh) and informed him about his mission,the revelation from God instructing him to build the first place of worship....Peace

truthman2012: @ ayenny02

Hagar was not Abraham's wife, she was a maid. Other women (including Hagar) who bore children for Abraham were not wives but concubines (Genesis 25:5-6). Concubine means man living with a woman not lawfully married to. Abraham sent all other children away except Isaac, the son from his legitimate wife.So Hagar was not Abraham's legitimate wife.

Abraham was from Mesopotamia (Genesis 24:10). That was his town where he sent his eldest servant to go and get wife for Isaac (Genesis 24:1-4). He lived in Canaan (Gen. 24:3). Sarah lived in Canaan (Gen. 23:2). This shows Abraham was living with his legitimate wife in Israel.

Therefore it is not true that the black stone was sent to Abraham in Arabia. He was not there. The black stone was a 'marker' of the Arabian 'god' - Abdulai's and Muhammad's Allah.

Abraham was a Jew. The Jews are his descendants (seeds) practising his religion (John 8:31-33, John 8:37).

Brother,point of correction.Abraham(pbuh) has only two sons and two wives,not many wives(Galatians 4;22,Genesis 2;1)In the Old Testament,God singled
out the descendants of Ishmael (the Arabs) for a particular blessing:
“And, as for Ishmael, I have heard you: I will surely bless him;I will
make him fruitful and will greatly increase his numbers. He will be
the father of twelve rulers, and I will make him into a great
nation” [Genesis 17: 20].If hagar and ismael(pbuh)aren't abraham(pbuh)'s legitimate family,why would God promise to bless ismael(pbuh) and make his nation(arabs)great? Do you even realised the first fruit of abraham(pbuh)was ismael(pbuh),he can never abandon his first fruit The book of
Genesis tells us that Abraham left his wife (Hagar) and Ishmael to
settle in ‘Paran’ (Genesis 21:21),which according to historians is in
Arabia.God promised to make ismael(pbuh) too a great nation,so for this promise to come to pass,abraham(pbuh) accompany hagar and ismael(pbuh) to the arabian peninsula,he never chased them away.When abraham(pbuh) wanted to lay the foundations of the kabba,he came to arabia to visit ismael(pbuh) and informed him about his mission,the revelation from God instructing him to build the first place of worship....Peace