Racism is not only the dicrimination of whites by blacks, or vice versa, but it also includes
this, when you buy tin beaverages (e.g Milk and Chocolate), more consumption of Milk takes place, it occurs that we prefer more intake of milk than chocolate during any kind of mixture, therefore arousing the believe
that milk attracts more attention than chocolates, this, in its own way, may be regarded as a form of racism, this is vast in our secondary schools, for those boarding in school domitory, which i experienced myself,
and i believe it is still happening over there, now my questions goes this way.
1. Is it that milk has more taste than chocolates?
2. Is it that the white man, being the fore-manufacturer of milk, intentionally made it white so it can incline discrimination,
knowing fully well that it tastes better than choco? As some answers in question number 1 may suggest.
3. Have you ever finished your choco before milk? And how challenging was it?
4. Some parents do purchse 2 tins of milk over a tin of chocolate for their children in school, even at home, are they indirectly
promoting this form of racism?
5. Is this in any way a form of racism? If yes, then how do we classify it in order or racisms? for me, i classify it as a longer-throatal racism.
Thank you house, you may now answer the questions.