Assallam aleykum warahmotullah wabarakatuh...

People might start saying Mighty Kabex is an anti-christ or satanic.. judge me as you wish but don't forget what matthew 7:1 says.. I will never stop exposing the truth. I just joined nairaland and I hope to make a clear-cut credence and show your the bitter truth about the bible and christianity.

What I shall treat now..is to show you that The Biblical God is a deceiver __


Let us begin_


You won't hear enough of Christian
missionaries arguing that the Qur'an describes
Allah as plotting and deceiving (refer here).
So I think it is only fair if we return them the
favor and show how the God of the Bible is a
deceiver, thus by the Christian missionary
criteria the Biblical God is an immoral God and
should not be worshipped.
We read in...
Jeremiah 4:10
Then I said, "Ah, Sovereign LORD, how
completely you have deceived (nasha) this
people and Jerusalem by saying, 'You will have
peace,' when the sword is at our throats."
The word for deceived here is nasha, which
means...
1) to beguile, deceive
a) (Niphal) to be beguiled
b) (Hiphil) to beguile, deceive
c) (Qal) utterly (infinitive)
Source: http://www.blueletterbible.org/tmp_
dir/words/5/1144094423-2544.html
John Gill states in his commentary...
surely thou hast greatly deceived this people
and Jerusalem:
what the false prophets did, that God is said
to do, because he suffered them to deceive
the people; (John Gill, The New John Gill
Exposition of the Entire Bible, Commentary
on Jeremiah 4:10, Source)
The New Bible commentary states...
Jeremiah is not indifferent to the message,
which he is called to preach. In v 10 a note is
struck to which he will return in relation to
himself (15:18). In his distress he accuses the
Lord of having deceived the people,
presumably by having allowed false prophets to
convince them with a message of peace (cf.
6:13-14). The only reply is the Lord's own
confirmation that judgment is sure. (New Bible
Commentary)
Even though it was really the false prophets
who did the act of deception, the Bible is
actually shifting the blame to God for actually
allowing the false prophets to do the
deception. This is what the "inspired" author
Jeremiah said and this is what we got to accept.
God deceived innocent people.
It seemed that people were so bothered with
Jeremiah's ascription of deception to God that
they had to reword the sentence so that
deception is ascribed to the false prophets
instead.
Ah, Lord God! surely thou hast greatly
deceived this people
The Targum paraphrases this verse thus: "And I
said, Receive my supplication, O Lord God; for,
behold, the false prophets deceive this people
and the inhabitants of Jerusalem, saying, Ye
shall have peace." The prophet could not
reconcile this devastation of the country with
the promises already made; and he appears to
ask the question, Hast thou not then deceived
this people in saying there shall be peace, i.e.,
prosperity? (Adam Clarke, The Adam Clarke
Commentary, Commentary on Jeremiah
4:10, Source)
We have it in...
1 Kings 22:20-22
20 And the LORD said, 'Who will entice Ahab
into attacking Ramoth Gilead and going to his
death there?'
"One suggested this, and another that. 21
Finally, a spirit came forward, stood before the
LORD and said, 'I will entice him.'
22 " 'By what means?' the LORD asked.
" 'I will go out and be a lying spirit in the
mouths of all his prophets,' he said.
" 'You will succeed in enticing him,' said the
LORD. 'Go and do it.'
Here we see that the man said that he would
resort to lying in order to entice Ahab and God
supported the idea and told him to go ahead
and do it!
I personally have no moral objections to this
since I believe God could at times use means
of deception in order to ensure the greater
good and to use deception against evil.
However, Christians don't allow this when we
talk about Allah deceiving evildoers in the
Qur'an. These are double standards.
We even have it in...
Ezekiel 14:9-11
9 " 'And if the prophet is enticed to utter a
prophecy, I the LORD have enticed that
prophet, and I will stretch out my hand against
him and destroy him from among my people
Israel. 10 They will bear their guilt-the prophet
will be as guilty as the one who consults him.
11 Then the people of Israel will no longer
stray from me, nor will they defile themselves
anymore with all their sins. They will be my
people, and I will be their God, declares the
Sovereign LORD.' "
God is punishing him for a crime that He
enticed him to do in the first place? Isn't that
entrapment?
Another passage...
Isaiah 37:6-7
Isaiah said to them, "Tell your master, 'This is
what the LORD says: Do not be afraid of what
you have heard-those words with which the
underlings of the king of Assyria have
blasphemed me. Listen! I am going to put a
spirit in him so that when he hears a certain
report, he will return to his own country, and
there I will have him cut down with the sword.'
"
God had that spirit spread a rumor so that the
King of Assyria can to return to his homeland.
In short, that spirit's purpose was for
deception.
Another example from the Bible...
Isaiah 19:14
The LORD has poured into them a spirit of
dizziness; they make Egypt stagger in all that
she does, as a drunkard staggers around in his
vomit.
Here we see God deceiving people to the
extent that they become absolutely foolish.
Even though I don't believe the Gospels teach
that Jesus taught he was God, however this
example is for those who believe that Jesus is
God. Jesus admits that he was speaking
figuratively all this time...
John 16:25
25"Though I have been speaking figuratively
(paroimia), a time is coming when I will no
longer use this kind of language but will tell
you plainly about my Father.
The word paroimia could mean...
1) a saying out of the usual course or deviating
from the usual manner of speaking
a) a current or trite saying, a proverb
2) any dark saying which shadows forth some
didactic truth
a) esp. a symbolic or figurative saying
b) speech or discourse in which a thing is
illustrated by the use of similes and
comparisons
c) an allegory
1) extended and elaborate metaphor
Source: http://www.blueletterbible.org/tmp_
dir/words/3/1146511128-5176.html
Why wasn't Jesus speaking in a normal and
clear way all the time? Why did Jesus then go
and say that he won't 'use this kind of
language'?
Well, here we find out why...
Mark 4:10-12
10When he was alone, the Twelve and the
others around him asked him about the
parables. 11He told them, "The secret of the
kingdom of God has been given to you. But to
those on the outside everything is said in
parables 12so that," 'they may be ever
seeing but never perceiving, and ever
hearing but never understanding; otherwise
they might turn and be forgiven!'
So here we see that Jesus was deceiving certain
people by speaking in parables so that they
won't (and God forbid!) REPENT AND BE
FORGIVEN!
Also in...
2 Thessalonians 2:11
11For this reason God sends them a powerful
delusion so that they will believe the lie
So God will delude people so that they can
believe lies?
Now Christians would argue back and ask us
Muslims to understand the context and reasons
why God did such a thing. However, when we
tell Christians to do the same thing when it
comes to analyzing certain Qur'anic verses they
don't want to do it. So why should us Muslims?