hello gurus in the house. I wonder why 1+1 would equals 2. though that's what we were thought. And i think this is just someone's idea, probably a whit man. can someone explain and prove to me that 1+1 = 11

Thanks for your response.

The only way you can make 1 + 1 is through visual effect


Get 2 tooth picks. That shall do the trick.

let me explain it to u- u dont rily have to be a guru- our counting system is in base 10 so 1+1=2 in base 10 up till base 3. Then we get to base 2, 1+1 is equal to 10. The problem is that the numbers are just way of visualizing a quantity so rily the numbers are useless and ur statement is totally unpredicated. 1+1= 11 cannot mean anything except it is equal to the quantity 2 in our minds- There fore these two smiles can be refrred top as 10 smiles in base 2, 11 smiles in whatever base or counting system u want to use as long as it doesnt detract from the fact that their are two smiles in the cognitive sense.

I can prove to You that 7/5 is equal 2,

1+1=11, 7/5=2 therefore,2=11 and 2=7/5. tunnypop and free_rhyme,the both of you can also prove that 7/5=11. Gabry u are a genius.

Eemeekaa:

Gabry u are a genius.

LOL I did not expect for such a lovely comment ooo. . . U are so sweet

am i not a genius too? i can also prove, what would you guyz want us to prove about? so lets start proving,

natural numbers existed even before the creation of the world and mankind, Man only discovers them as time goes on, In the ancient time peoples tried to keep reord of that they own. That was when people started counting with fingers and toes, even with marks on the wall. There was no education then bt there was something we call informal education. i.e if a man has 1 goat he will make 1 mark on the wall. If he has 2 he will make 2(i.e 1'1).
_____________________The proof starts from the Peano Postulates, which define the natural
numbers N. N is the smallest set satisfying these postulates:________________

P1. 1 is in N.
P2. If x is in N, then its "successor" x' is in N.
P3. There is no x such that x' = 1.
P4. If x isn't 1, then there is a y in N such that y' = x.
P5. If S is a subset of N, 1 is in S, and the implication
(x in S => x' in S) holds, then S = N.

Then you have to define addition recursively:
Def: Let a and b be in N. If b = 1, then define a + b = a'
(using P1 and P2). If b isn't 1, then let c' = b, with c in N
(using P4), and define a + b = (a + c)'.

Then you have to define 2:
Def: 2 = 1'

2 is in N by P1, P2, and the definition of 2.

Theorem: 1 + 1 = 2

Proof: Use the first part of the definition of + with a = b = 1.
Then 1 + 1 = 1' = 2 Q.E.D.

Note: There is an alternate formulation of the Peano Postulates which
replaces 1 with 0 in P1, P3, P4, and P5. Then you have to change the
definition of addition to this:
Def: Let a and b be in N. If b = 0, then define a + b = a.
If b isn't 0, then let c' = b, with c in N, and define
a + b = (a + c)'.

You also have to define 1 = 0', and 2 = 1'. Then the proof of the
Theorem above is a little different:

Proof: Use the second part of the definition of + first:
1 + 1 = (1 + 0)'
Now use the first part of the definition of + on the sum in
parentheses: 1 + 1 = (1)' = 1' = 2 Q.E.D.

You can get to me for more info Email: storm4help@yahoo.com.
my decipline iS MATH/COMP.

visit this link to get your desired answer

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=8yD_ZCqOhZE

There is no absolute certainty in proving 1+1 equals 2.

Since 1 already is a standard number and 2 is also a standard number, there is no certainty that 1 can be added to another 1 to equals 2, if 1 is been added to another number, that therefore equals 1+1 which cannot be 2 already 1 is itself. Its just a language game.

Let's take an example from a phone.
if a phone is been being given me by my father, I have 1 phone now then another phone is been given me by my mother, however language could accept that I have 2 phones but the phones I have is a phone from my father and a phone from my mother which is 1 phone + 1 phone.
They cannot be added together to become 2.
Even if you are counting from 1 to 100, the counting is 1+1+1+1+1+1 till 100, therefore having 2,3,4, and so on in the counting system is just a language game.

There is no absolute certainty in proving 1+1 equals 2.

Since 1 already is a standard number and 2 is also a standard number, there is no certainty that 1 can be added to another 1 to equals 2, if 1 is been added to another number, that therefore equals 1+1 which cannot be 2 already 1 is itself. Its just a language game.

Let's take an example from a phone.
if a phone is been being given me by my father, I have 1 phone now then another phone is been given me by my mother, however language could accept that I have 2 phones but the phones I have is a phone from my father and a phone from my mother which is 1 phone + 1 phone.
They cannot be added together to become 2.
Even if you are counting from 1 to 100, the counting is 1+1+1+1+1+1 till 100, therefore having 2,3,4, and so on in the counting system is just a language game.