Abraham is widely regarded as the Patriarch of monotheism and the common father of the Jews, Christians and Muslims. Through His second son, Isaac, came all Israelite prophets including such towering figures as Jacob, Joseph, Moses, David, Solomon and Jesus. May peace and blessings be upon them all. The advent of these great prophets was in partial fulfillment of God's promises to bless the nations of earth through the descendents of Abraham (Genesis12:2-3).Such fulfillment is wholeheartedly accepted by Muslims whose faith considers the belief in and respect of all prophets an article of faith.



BLESSINGS OF ISHMAEL AND ISAAC

Was the first born son of Abraham (Ishmael) and his descendants included in God's covenant and promise? A few verses from the Bible may help shed some light on this question;

1) Genesis 12:2-3 speaks of God's promise to Abraham and his descendants before any child was born to him.

2) Genesis 17:4 reiterates God's promise after the birth of Ishmael and before the birth of Isaac.

3) In Genesis, ch. 21. Isaac is specifically blessed but Ishmael was also specifically blessed and promised by God to become "a great nation" especially in Genesis 21:13, 18.

4) According to Deuteronomy 21:15-17 the traditional rights and privileges of the first born son are not to be affected by the social status of his mother (being a "free" woman such as Sarah, Isaac's mother, or a "Bondwoman" such as Hagar, Ishmael's mother). This is only consistent with the moral and humanitarian principles of all revealed faiths.

5) The full legitimacy of Ishmael as Abraham's son and "seed" and the full legitimacy of his mother, Hagar, as Abraham's wife are clearly stated in Genesis 21:13 and 16:3. After Jesus, the last Israelite messenger and prophet, it was time that God's promise to bless Ishmael and his descendants be fulfilled. Less than 600years after Jesus, came the last messenger of God, Muhammad, from the progeny of Abraham through Ishmael. God's blessing of both of the main branches of Abraham's family tree was now fullfilled. But are there additional corroborating evidence that the Bible did in fact foretell the advent of prophet Muhammad?



MUHAMMAD:
The Prophet Like Unto Moses

Long time after Abraham, God's promise to send the long-awaited Messenger was repeated this time in Moses' words.
In Deuteronomy 18:18, Moses spoke of the prophet to be sent by God who is:

1) From among the Israelite's "brethren", a reference to their Ishmaelite cousins as Ishmael was the other son of Abraham who was explicitly promised to become a "great nation".

2) A prophet like unto Moses. There were hardly any two prophets ,who were so much alike as Moses and Muhammad. Both were given comprehensive law code of life, both encountered their enemies and were victors in miraculous ways, both were accepted as prophets/statesmen and both migrated following conspiracies to assassinate them. Analogies between Moses and Jesus overlooks not only the above similarities but other crucial ones as well (e.g. the natural birth, family life and death of Moses and Muhammad but not of Jesus, who was regarded by His followers as the Son of God and not exclusively a messenger of God, as Moses and Muhammad were and as Muslim belief Jesus was).



THE AWAITED PROPHET WAS TO COME FROM ARABIA

Deuteronomy 33:1-2 combines references to Moses, Jesus and Muhammad. It speaks of God (i.e. God's revelation) coming from Sinai, rising from Seir (probably the village of Sa'ir near Jerusalem) and shining forth from Paran. According to Genesis 21:21, the wilderness of Paran was the place where Ishmael settled (i.e. Arabia, specifically Mecca).

Indeed the King James version of the Bible mentions the pilgrims passing through the valley of Ba'ca (another name of Mecca) in Psalms 84:4-6.

Isaiah 42:1-13 speaks of the beloved of God. His elect and messenger who will bring down a law to be awaited in the isles and who "shall not fail nor be discouraged till he have set judgement on earth." Verse 11, connects that awaited one with the descendants of Ke'dar. Who is Ke'dar? According to Genesis 25:13, Ke'dar was the second son of Ishmael, the ancestor of prophet Muhammad.



MUHAMMAD'S MIGRATION FROM MECCA TO MEDINA:
PROPHECIED IN THE BIBLE?

Habakkuk 3:3 speaks of God (God's help) coming from Te'man (an Oasis North of Medina according to J. Hasting's Dictionary of the Bible), and the holy one (coming) from Paran. That holy one who under persecution migrated from Paran (Mecca) to be received enthusiastically in Medina was none but prophet Muhammad.
Indeed the incident of the migration of the prophet and his persecuted followers is vividly described in Isaiah 21:13-17. That section foretold as well about the battle of Badr in which the few ill-armed faithful miraculously defeated the "mighty" men of Ke'dar, who sought to destroy Islam and intimidate their own folks who turned -to Islam.



THE QUR'AN (KORAN) FORETOLD IN THE BIBLE?

For twenty-three years, God's words (the Qur'an) were truely put into Muhammad's mouth. He was not the "author" of the Qur'an. The Qur'an was dictated to him by Angel Gabriel who asked Muhammad to simply repeat the words of the Qur'an as he heard them. These words were then committed to memory and to writing by those who hear them during Muhammad's life time and under his supervision.

Was it a coincidence that the prophet "like unto Moses" from the "brethren" of the Israelites (i.e. from the lshmaelites) was also described as one in whose mouth God will put his words and that he will speak in the name of God, (Deuteronomy 18:18-20). Was it also a coincidence the "Paraclete" that Jesus foretold to come after Him was described as one who "shall not speak of himself, but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak (John 16:13)

Was it another coincidence that Isaiah ties between the messenger connected with Ke'dar and a new song (a scripture in a new language) to be sang unto the Lord (Isaiah 42:10-11). More explicitly, prophesies Isaiah "For with stammering lips, and another tongue, will he speak to this people" (Isaiah 28:11). This latter verse correctly describes the "stammering lips" of Prophet Muhammad reflecting the state of tension and concentration he went through at the time of revelation. Another related point is that the Qur'an was revealed in piece-meals over a span of twenty three years. It is interesting to compare this with Isaiah 28:10 whichspeaks of the same thing.



THAT PROPHET- PARACLETE- MUHAMMAD

Up to the time of Jesus (peace be upon him), the Israelites were still awaiting for that prophet like unto Moses prophecied in Deuteronomy 18:18. When John the Baptist came, they asked him if he was Christ and he said "no". They asked him if he was Elias and he said "no". Then, in apparent reference to Deuteronomy 18:18, they asked him "Art thou that Prophet" and he answered, "no". (John 1: 1 9-2 1).

In the Gospel according to John (Chapters 14, 15, 16) Jesus spoke of the "Paraclete" or comforter who will come after him, who will be sent by Father as another Paraclete, who will teach new things which the contemporaries of Jesus could not bear. While the Paraclete is described as the spirit of truth, (whose meaning resemble Muhammad's famous title Al-Amin, the trustworthy), he is identified in one verse as the Holy Ghost (John 14:26). Such a designation is however inconsistent with the profile of that Paraclete. In the words of the Dictionary of the Bible, (Ed. J. Mackenzie) "These items, it must be admitted do not give an entirely coherent picture."

Indeed history tells us that many early Christians understood the Paraclete to be a man and not a spirit. This might explain the followings who responded to some who claimed, without meeting the criteria stipulated by Jesus, to be the awaited "Paraciete".

It was Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) who was the Paraclete, Comforter, helper, admonisher sent by God after Jesus. He testified of Jesus, taught new things which could not be borne at Jesus' time, he spoke what he heard (revelation), he dwells with the believers (through his well-preserved teachings). Such teachings will remain forever because he was the last messenger of God, the only Universal Messenger to unite the whole of humanity under God and on the path of PRESERVED truth. He told of many things to come which "came to pass" in the minutest detail meeting, the criterion given by Moses to distinguish between the true prophet and the false prophets (Deuteronomy 18:22). He did reprove the world of sin, of righteousness and of judgement (John 16:8-11)



WAS THE SHIFT OF RELIGIOUS LEADERSHIP PROPHECIED?

Following the rejection of the last Israelite prophet, Jesus, it was about time that God's promise to make Ishmael a great nation be fulfilled (Genesis 21:13, 18)

In Matthew 21:19-21, Jesus spoke of the fruitless fig tree (A Biblical symbol of prophetic heritage) to be cleared after being given a last chance of three years (the duration of Jesus' ministry) to give fruit. In a later verse in the same chapter, Jesus said: "Therefore, say I unto you, The Kingdom of God shall be taken away from you, and given to a nation bringing forth the fruit thereof" (Matthew 21:43). That nation of Ishmael's descendants (the rejected stone in Matthew 21:42) which was victorious against all super-powers of its time as prophecied by Jesus: "And whosoever shall fall on this stone shall be broken, but on whomsoever it shall fall, it will grind him to powder" (Matthew 21:44).



OUT OF CONTEXT COINCIDENCE?

Is it possible that the numerous prophecies cited here are all individually and combined out of context misinterpretations? Is the opposite true, that such infrequently studied verses fit together consistently and clearly point to the advent of the man who changed the course of human history, Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him). Is it reasonable to conclude that all these prophecies, appearing in different books of the Bible and spoken by various prophets at different times were all coincidence? If this is so here is another strange "coincidence"!

One of the signs of the prophet to come from Paran (Mecca) is that he will come with "ten thousands of saints" (Deuteronomy 33:2 KJV). That was the number of faithful who accompanied Prophet Muhammad to Paran (Mecca) in his victorious, bloodless return to his birthplace to destroy the remaining symbols of idolatry in the Ka'bah.

Says God as quoted by Moses:
And it shall come to pass, that whosoever will not hearken unto my words which he shall speak in my name, I will require it of him. (Deuteronomy 18:19)

Good for lying your post based on reserch, keep it up.

@balium,

Your arguments for Muhammad in the Bible are a repeat dub of the same things we have trashed out in other threads. I've responded in just about the same thing in these other threads -

1.  Muhammad Is Mentioned By The Exact Name In The Gospel Of Barnabas

2.  The Bible Confirms The Messengership Of Prophet Muhammad (pbuh)

3.  What The Bible Says About Muhammad S.a.w.

It's funny that when answers are given to these typical Muslim misplaced arguments, we don't read Muslims coming back to give reasoned answers to the rejoinders. Are you guys really holding your horses together or just out to amuse yourselves?

In addition to the answers already provided in those threads outlined above, let me add a few things to your issues in this thread.

balium:

Was the first born son of Abraham (Ishmael) and his descendants included in God's covenant and promise?

It depends on what you mean by "God's covenant and promise". The Bible teaches that the Jewish covenant is not to be confused for other types of covenants found in the Bible. For example, God gave Abraham a covenant which we commonly call the Abrahamic covenant (Gen. 12:7 and 15:8), and we know that God called the nation of Israel to come under that Abraham covenant (see Exo. 6:2-4 and Deut. 1:6-8 et al); whereas, God did not give that covenant to any other 'seed' tracing its ancestry to Abraham (see Genesis 17:20-21 and 21:10-12).

From the above alone, we can see that Ishmael was NOT included in that specific covenant which God gave unto Abraham - and there are other examples throughout the Bible, where particular covenants pertain to a specific nation or group of people and did not include everyone in that group identity (see Exodus 23:32-33 and Duet. 23:3).

balium:

3) In Genesis, ch. 21. Isaac is specifically blessed but Ishmael was also specifically blessed and promised by God to become "a great nation" especially in Genesis 21:13, 18.

Although God specifically blessed both Isaac and Ishmael, yet it was rather with Issac that God established His specific covenant! Please read it for yourself -

Genesis 17:20-21
And as for Ishmael, I have heard thee: Behold, I have blessed him,
and will make him fruitful, and will multiply him exceedingly;
twelve princes shall he beget, and I will make him a great nation.
But my covenant will I establish with Isaac, which Sarah shall
bear unto thee at this set time in the next year.

There is not a single verse in the Bible that says God was going to establish His covenant with Ishmael.

@balium

balium:

4) According to Deuteronomy 21:15-17 the traditional rights and privileges of the first born son are not to be affected by the social status of his mother (being a "free" woman such as Sarah, Isaac's mother, or a "Bondwoman" such as Hagar, Ishmael's mother). This is only consistent with the moral and humanitarian principles of all revealed faiths.

Indeed, Deuteronomy 21:15-17 on the rights of inheritance shows that Ishmael was NOT under the Jewish covenants nor did God establish the covenant of Abraham upon the Hagar's son.

In the first place, Deuteronomy 21:15-17 was not discussing the Abrahamic covenant. Secondly, if we look at the inheritance rights in that passage, Ishmael could not have obtained the inheritance of double portion, because Hagar was not the "wife" but a "bondmaid" of Abraham (Galatians 4:22). For this reason, Abraham gave "all that he had" unto Isaac (Gen. 25:5), but gave Hagar just victuals before he sent them away (Gen. 21:14).

Thirdly, under Jewish covenants, the inheritance rights of firstborn might go to another child in the family under certain circumstances - as in the case of Reuben whose inheritance rights of firstborn fell to his nephews, the sons of Joseph (who was himself the 8th among the sons of Jacob - 1 Chron. 2:1-2 and 5:1-2). This is an example where it is declared that "the genealogy is not to be reckoned after the birthright", so your argument in #4 above is untenable.

balium:

5) The full legitimacy of Ishmael as Abraham's son and "seed" and the full legitimacy of his mother, Hagar, as Abraham's wife are clearly stated in Genesis 21:13 and 16:3.

You got it all mixed up and factually wrong again!

Genesis 16:3 comes before 21:13. In that case, we find that even though Sarah had given Hagar to Abraham as 'wife' (Gen. 16:3), such a 'marriage' did not hold - either by custom/tradition or rights of inheritance. For that reason, Hagar was never addressed as Abraham's 'wife', but rather often as bondwoman after that event. See the following -

Genesis 21:13
And also of the son of the bondwoman will I make a nation,
because he is thy seed.

Galatians 4:22
For it is written, that Abraham had two sons,
the one by a bondmaid, the other by a freewoman.

It was the same Sarah who called Hagar a 'bondwoman' in Gen. 21:10 even though she had given her previously to Abraham in Gen. 16:3. When she realised the error of what she had done in 16:3, she said to Abraham, "My wrong be upon thee: I have given my maid into thy bosom" (Gen. 16:5) - she recognized that such a move on her part was indeed WRONG, and that was why even after that event, Hagar was never addressed as Abraham's wife.

In Gen. 21:12, God addressed Hagar to Abraham as "thy bondwoman", and not as "thy wife". In the next verse (Gen. 21:13), God also referred to Ishmael as "the son of the bondwoman". In Galatians 4:22, the point is made that Hagar was known as a "bondmaid" rather than as Abraham's wife - and, of course, you did not deny the fact of Hagar being a "bondwoman" in your article:

(being a "free" woman such as Sarah, Isaac's mother, or a "Bondwoman" such as Hagar, Ishmael's mother).

@balium

balium:
MUHAMMAD:
The Prophet Like Unto Moses

Long time after Abraham, God's promise to send the long-awaited Messenger was repeated this time in Moses' words.

God did not make any "promise" to Abraham to send any 'Prophet' from Arabia; so where do you get the idea of "repeated" from?!? The first time he made any promise to send a Prophet was in Deuteronomy 18:15, then reiterated in verse 18 - both instances were spoken by Moses.

balium:

In Deuteronomy 18:18, Moses spoke of the prophet to be sent by God who is:

1) From among the Israelite's "brethren", a reference to their Ishmaelite cousins as Ishmael was the other son of Abraham who was explicitly promised to become a "great nation".

First, Moses did NOT say that the promised 'Prophet' was to come from anybody's "COUSIN", hehe!   You guys should learn to read simple statements without sweating to force the verse to shout for Muhammad!

Second, the promise to become a "great nation" does not include the promise of any prophet rising from the Ishmaelites - no verse in the Pentateuch (first five books of the Old Testament [Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers and Deuteronomy]) makes any such twisted arabian promises, sorry.

Third, once again I am posting you the same reply I have argued about the fallacy of Muslim apologetics to force Muhammad into Deuteronomy 18 - see below:

---

The foundation of Deuteronomy 18:18 is the Mosaic covenant given to Isreal as found reiterated in Deuteronomy chapter 5 - "The LORD our God made a covenant with us in Horeb", and goes on to show that this covenant was not made with any other nation apart from the Jews. For Deut. 18:18 to have any import, it would have to be based on the covenant which forms its foundation - and that is where we shall try to understand what is meant in that context by 'brethren'.

First, Jews do not receive their prophecies from Arabs - which is why that verse in 18:18 clearly points out.

Second, 'brethren' as used there is one of covenant relationship among all those who are home-born as Jews and can show their pedigree from the families of Israel. Others who lived among them but could not point to any Jewish family ties were called 'sojourners' or 'strangers', not brethren. It is for this reason that two distinct groups were recognized in Israel based upon that covenant: "Whosoever he be of the children of Israel, or of the strangers that sojourn in Israel" (Lev. 20:2).

Third, it is important for anyone at that time to identify their pedigree - otherwise it would be practically impossible for such a person to know where they stood in relation to the covenant life of Israel. Some of these covenant living include:

[list][li]the feast of the Jews[/li]
[li]political and civil life[/li]
[li]covenant relationships in prophecy[/li][/list]

Where is Muhammad in all that?

But more to the point is that there was only ONE LAW applicable to all who dwelt within Israel (Lev. 24:22); yet, sojourners (that is non-Jewish people dwelling in Israel) could not partake of the feasts of the Jews in exactly the same ceremonial standing as a native Jew. Why? Because when the covenant was made and ratified, it was representing only Jews - "The LORD made not this covenant with our fathers, but with us, even us, who are all of us here alive this day" (Deut. 5:3). So what then does this entail? Look below:

A. Jewish Feasts - Conditions for the Sojourner:

[list]Exodus 12:43-45, 48 ~~ "And the LORD said unto Moses and Aaron, This is the ordinance of the passover: There shall no stranger eat thereof: But every man's servant that is bought for money, when thou hast circumcised him, then shall he eat thereof. A foreigner and an hired servant shall not eat thereof." . . . "And when a stranger shall sojourn with thee, and will keep the passover to the LORD, let all his males be circumcised, and then let him come near and keep it; and he shall be as one that is born in the land: for no uncircumcised person shall eat thereof."[/list]
[list]Exodus 29:33 - "And they shall eat those things wherewith the atonement was made, to consecrate and to sanctify them: but a stranger shall not eat thereof, because they are holy."[/list]
[list]Lev. 22:10 - "There shall no stranger eat of the holy thing: a sojourner of the priest, or an hired servant, shall not eat of the holy thing."[/list]


B. Jewish Political Governance - Strangers Cannot Be Kings

[list]Deuteronomy 17:14-15  ~ "When thou art come unto the land which the LORD thy God giveth thee, and shalt possess it, and shalt dwell therein, and shalt say, I will set a king over me, like as all the nations that are about me; Thou shalt in any wise set him king over thee, whom the LORD thy God shall choose: one from among thy brethren shalt thou set king over thee: thou mayest not set a stranger over thee, which is not thy brother."[/list]


The Law makes a clear case for the following regarding Jews and sojourners/strangers:

[list](a) a sojourner or stranger (a non-native Jew) could not be a Jewish priest
(b) a sojourner or stranger (a non-native Jew) could not be a Jewish king
(c)  a sojourner or stranger (a non-native Jew) could not be a Jewish prophet[/list]

And all those 3 elements were pointing to the very Messiah in Jewish prophecies.

You can see that the Law does not confuse a Jew for a non-Jew; and nowhere in the Law is an Arab included in the covenant of the Jews. Muhammad is not one of the Jews, nor could he have been one of their 'brethren' to rise from among them based on that Jewish covenant. Deedat should have pointed all this to you and told you the plain truth - no, he did not; rather he just trailed off wherever he saw 'brethren' and assumed it applied to Muhammad; yet, not even Muhammad recognized the Jews as his 'brethren', and that is no surprise to see why the Arab Muslims hate the Jews to this day.

Must islam gain acceptability through the Bible?

@balium,

balium:

THE AWAITED PROPHET WAS TO COME FROM ARABIA

Farce. Fallacy. False.
There is no verse speaking about the Prophet coming from Arabia - in so far as the Jews were not Arabians, nor do the verses apeak about the "cousins" turning into Jewish prophets.

balium:

Deuteronomy 33:1-2 combines references to Moses, Jesus and Muhammad. It speaks of God (i.e. God's revelation) coming from Sinai, rising from Seir (probably the village of Sa'ir near Jerusalem) and shining forth from Paran.

There are no such "combinations", sorry. As you have acknowledged yourself, the passage speaks of God Himself and not about "God's revelation". It says, 'The LORD came from Sinai, and rose up from Seir unto them; he shined forth from mount Paran, and he came with ten thousands of saints: from his right hand went a fiery law for them.'

The same thing is highlighted in Hab. 3:3 - 'God came from Teman, and the Holy One from mount Paran. Selah. His glory covered the heavens, and the earth was full of his praise.'

balium:

Isaiah 42:1-13 speaks of the beloved of God. His elect and messenger who will bring down a law to be awaited in the isles and who "shall not fail nor be discouraged till he have set judgement on earth."

Isaiah 42 was not speaking about Muhammad. Verse 1 says, "I have put my Spirit upon him" - and this shows us that it was NOT Muhammad that was meant there. Why? Because there is no verse in the Quran or hadith that teaches that God put His Spirit upon Muhammad - if there is any such verse(s), please post it/them and let us read for ourselves.

Verse 6 also says: "I the LORD have called thee in righteousness, and will hold thine hand, and will keep thee, and give thee for a covenant of the people, for a light of the Gentiles" - is there any verse that says that Muhammad was given as a covenant to anybody? I have not read any such verses in the Quran or hadiths - so if you have any verse on that, please post it and let's read for ourselves.

balium:

Verse 11, connects that awaited one with the descendants of Ke'dar. Who is Ke'dar? According to Genesis 25:13, Ke'dar was the second son of Ishmael, the ancestor of prophet Muhammad.

Isaiah 42 verse 11 is talking about God who is to be praised, not about any arabian prophet. If you read it together with verse 12, the sense is clear:

Let the wilderness and the cities thereof lift up their voice,
the villages that Kedar doth inhabit: let the inhabitants of
the rock sing, let them shout from the top of the mountains.
Let them give glory unto the LORD, and declare his praise
in the islands.

That passage does not speak about any arabian prophet to rise among the Jews, nor does it give any idea of an arabian prophet to be praised. It is God who is to be praised there. The same prophet Isaiah says this of Ke'dar -

"For thus hath the Lord said unto me, Within a year, according to
the years of an hireling, and all the glory of Kedar shall fail:
And the residue of the number of archers, the mighty men of
the children of Kedar, shall be diminished:
for the LORD God of Israel hath spoken it."
[Isaiah 21:16-17]

It is not only Isaiah that prophesied such spoiling and diminishing of Ke'dar - another prophet (Jeremiah) also spoke about the same unfortunate despoiling of Ke'dar:

Concerning Kedar, and concerning the kingdoms of Hazor,
which Nebuchadrezzar king of Babylon shall smite,
thus saith the LORD; Arise ye, go up to Kedar, and spoil the men of the east.
Their tents and their flocks shall they take away: they shall take to themselves
their curtains, and all their vessels, and their camels; and they shall cry
unto them, Fear is on every side. [Jeremiah 49:28-29]

I wonder why no Muslim apologists ever reads those verses when they often try to play their games of dribbling Muhammad into Isaiah's prophecies. Meanwhile, we don't read about either prophet Isaiah or Jeremiah in the Quran - why?

Nezan:

Must islam gain acceptability through the Bible?

Hehe, I wonder how else they would gain the credibility they seek.

@balium,

balium:

Habakkuk 3:3 speaks of God (God's help) coming from Te'man (an Oasis North of Medina according to J. Hasting's Dictionary of the Bible), and the holy one (coming) from Paran. That holy one who under persecution migrated from Paran (Mecca) to be received enthusiastically in Medina was none but prophet Muhammad.

This is what Habakkuk 3:3 says: "God came from Teman, and the Holy One from mount Paran. Selah. His glory covered the heavens, and the earth was full of his praise." If you read on to verses 4 and 5 -

'And his brightness was as the light; he had horns coming out of his hand:
and there was the hiding of his power. Before him went the pestilence,
and burning coals went forth at his feet.'

Does this passage speak about Muhammad? Absolutely NOT. How does the Quran demonstrate that Muhammad had "burning coals" going forth from his feet? Where in the hadiths do we find such descriptions of Muhammad?

Meanwhile, when the Jewish prophets speak about "the Holy One", everyone knows that is an appellation of God, and not of Muhammad. The same prophet Habbakuk identifies the Holy as God Himself - 'Art thou not from everlasting, O LORD my God, mine Holy One?' (Hab. 1:12).

The prophet Isaiah also identifies God as the Holy One - 'I am the LORD, your Holy One, the creator of Israel, your King' (Isaiah 43:15).

Why do you Muslims like snatching verses from other religions to blindly argue an Islamic credulity for Muhammad?

balium:

Indeed the incident of the migration of the prophet and his persecuted followers is vividly described in Isaiah 21:13-17. That section foretold as well about the battle of Badr in which the few ill-armed faithful miraculously defeated the "mighty" men of Ke'dar, who sought to destroy Islam and intimidate their own folks who turned -to Islam.

Isaiah 21:13-17 has nothing to do with anyone turning to Islam. It does not describe any battle of Badr; and if you insist, then remember indeed that Badr in Islamic history is one case where Allah revealed a quranic verse that was cancelled and is NOT found in the Quran today. I have shown this in another thread - go see for yourself.

Besides, may I remind you of what the prophet Isaiah said in that passage in your quote -

"For thus hath the Lord said unto me, Within a year, according to
the years of an hireling, and ALL THE GLORY of Kedar shall FAIL:
And the residue of the number of archers, the mighty men of
the children of Kedar, shall be diminished:
for the LORD God of Israel hath spoken it."
[Isaiah 21:16-17]

Isaiah said that ALL THE GLORY of Ke'dar shall FAIL. There are no half measures describing some half-Arabians tunring to Islam or otherwise - the whole passage has absolutely nothing to do with Islam. Period.

@balium,

balium:

THE QUR'AN (KORAN) FORETOLD IN THE BIBLE?

No - absolutely NOT.

balium:

Was it a coincidence that the prophet "like unto Moses" from the "brethren" of the Israelites (i.e. from the lshmaelites) was also described as one in whose mouth God will put his words and that he will speak in the name of God, (Deuteronomy 18:18-20).

There are no similarities between Moses and Muhammad in that index, so there could be no real or imagined 'coincidental, occidental or oriental' drama for Islam in Deuteronomy 18:18-20.

When God said He would raise up a Prophet like unto Moses, we have to ask: in what manner did God speak to Moses? And the answer is found in Exodus 33:11 - 'And the LORD spake unto Moses face to face, as a man speaketh unto his friend.' We also know that God spoke with the Israelites face to face (Deut. 5:4).

Please tell me: WHERE did Allah ever speak to Muhammad "face to face"?

Second, when we read that "he will speak in the name of God", we have to ask: what was the name that God revealed of Himself to Moses and to Israel? The answer is also before us in Exodus 6:3 - 'And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH was I not known to them.'

Please tell me: WHERE did Muhammad ever speak to anybody in the name of JEHOVAH?

Dude, forget this game - Muhammad is NOT the Prophet of Deuteronomy 18; and all the propagandists looking for the prophet of Islam in the Bible are deceiving themselves.

balium:

Was it also a coincidence the "Paraclete" that Jesus foretold to come after Him was described as one who "shall not speak of himself, but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak (John 16:13)

The "Paraclete" is NOT Muhammad; and to have inferred John 16:13 for Muhammad is blasphemy!

This is what John 16:13 says - 'Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come'.

It is in John 16:7 that we read of the 'Paracletos' ('for if I go not away, the Comforter [paracletos] will not come unto you') - and earlier in John 14:26 we understand what Jesus meant by the 'Comforter' -

But the Comforter [paracletos], which is the Holy Ghost,
whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you
all things, and bring all things to your remembrance,
whatsoever I have said unto you.

It is in John 15:26 that the Comforter [paracletos] is precisely called 'the Spirit of Truth' as in John 16:13 -

But when the Comforter [paracletos] is come, whom I will send unto you
from the Father, even the Spirit of truth, which proceedeth from the Father,
he shall testify of me [John 15:26]

There are a few questions to ask and a few observations to make here:

1.   John 16:14 testifies that the 'Spirit of Truth' will glorify Jesus Christ:
question: was Muhammad glorifying Jesus Christ or just interested in glorifying the arabian deity commonly called 'Allah'? If Muhammad did not come to glorify Jesus Christ, Muslims have no business trying to dribble Muhammad into John 16:13.

2.   John 15:26 tells us that Jesus is the One who sends the Comforter [paracletos - the 'Spirit of Truth'] from the Father.
question: Did Muhammad anywhere say that he was sent by Jesus Christ? Did Muhammad say anywhere that he was sent from the Father? Does Islam preach GOD as the FATHER? If Muhammad does not claim that he was sent by Jesus Christ, and if he denies the FATHER, then he is NOT the Comforter - and Muslims have no business trying to dribble Muhammad into John 15:26.

3.  John 14:26 defines the Comforter [paracletos] to be the same as the Holy Ghost.
question: where did Muhammad ever call himself either 'the Comforter [paracletos]', or 'the Holy Ghost', or even 'the Spirit of Truth'? Where did Allah ever refer to Muhammad by any of these names according to John 15:26?!? If Muhammad is NEVER referred to by such a title/name, then again Muslims have no business trying to dribble Muhammad into John 14:26.

It is funny how desperate your Muslim apologists and propagandists can be! Indeed, I know that all the arguments you posted here are NOT YOUR OWN but a plagiarised work from one Dr. Jamal Badawi posted in IslamCity.

In any case, perhaps that is why chakula refers to your cut-and-paste as:

chakula:
Good for lying your post based on reserch, keep it up.

Yes, 'Dr.' Jamal Badawi ought to add another feather to his lying cap.

You are very right poster, I was told mohammed is in the Bible, only that his name was not mentioned but it is very clear. Check Matt 7:15. Happy now

^^ Funny.