SlayerofSatan:
The word Injeel comes from the Greek word "Engelion" which means "Good News" So why is allah using a Greek word to describe a book which was sent to the Jews when he said that he only sends messengers to people in their own language?


Surah 14:4

And We did not send any messenger except in the language of his people to state clearly for them,

AntiChristian:
1. Who said they were corrupted from their beginnings? Is the new testament as it is today a revelation from God?

2. The Injeel is the revelation revealed to Jesus which he preached and transmitted to his followers. It was never written down during his lifetime.

AntiChristian:
You will have to answer if Jesus spoke/Preached in Greek anytime in his life time.

Kobojunkie:
Jesus Christ supposedly spoke Aramaic but Allah used a Greek word to refer to that which Jesus Christ supposedly said in Aramaic... ?

AntiChristian:
What's Good News in Aramaic, Arabic and Hebrew?

Kobojunkie:
1. You claimed earlier that the writers of the Gospel were dubious, did you not?

You also claimed that Jesus Christ did not command anyone to write the Injeel revelation down, meaning it is likely lost to mankind as a result, did you not?

2. Yet your Allah mentioned more than 650 years after Jesus Christ that there were followers of the injeel meaning this revelation which you claim was not given in the form of a book was transmitted either via revelation to those who your Allah mentioned or even by word of mouth or better yet in writings?

Kobojunkie:
You should be the one telling me this since you are the one attempting to change the channel here pretending that language of delivery matters. So go ahead and enlighten us... why did Allah refer to in Greek that which Jesus Christ supposedly spoke of in Aramaic?

AntiChristian:
1. The followers of the Injeel are the disciples the Qu'ran mentioned they called themselves Muslims....

2. Who said the authors corrupted them?
I don't know where your spirit is leading you but let this be the last time you ascribe what I didn't say to me.

3. Even if we agree that the disciples wrote down the Injeel and transmitted it. They have no control of the transmission!

4. And i don't know what you mean by they continued to receive the Injeel?

AntiChristian:
How will i know that? What is evident from the Bible you have today is that the writers are dubious! Matthew may not have written Matthew! Paul may not have written Hebrews! The Injeel spoken of in the Qur'an is what Allah revealed to him for the children of Israel! It is not the birth and biography of Jesus from 0-33yrs and some disciples/Historian/Paul's letters and additions!

AntiChristian:


The question i answered was asked about language and i responded likewise!

You didn't ask the question but you are responding to the answer to someone else's question!

Only a Junkie does that bro!

Kobojunkie:
1. So now your claim is the injeel revelation is the same revelation that Allah revealed to Mohammed 650 years after Jesus Christ? And so Muslims are also followers of the injeel?

2. Get over yourself abeg! In your own words you claimed the writers of the Gospels were dubious now you attempt to backtrack, this by casting aspersions on me for repeating your own claims?

3. Control of transmission of what exactly?

4. You claimed the injeel may have been a revelation given to Jesus Christ and not an actual book, and you also claimed the revelation was not written down during Jesus Christ's lifetime, yet 650 years after Jesus Christ, your Allah is recorded to have made reference to existence of those who follow the injeel, leading me to ask if instead the injeel had been passed by revelation to all those followers of Jesus Christ as well..

AntiChristian:
1. The question i answered was asked about language and i responded likewise!

2. You didn't ask the question but you are responding to the answer to someone else's question! Only a Junkie does that bro!

SlayerofSatan:
The word Injeel comes from the Greek word "Engelion" which means "Good News" So why is allah using a Greek word to describe a book which was sent to the Jews when he said that he only sends messengers to people in their own language?

Surah 14:4 - And We did not send any messenger except in the language of his people to state clearly for them,

AntiChristian:
1. Point me to this claim of mine.The Premise is truly from me but not this conclusion.

2. Jesus didn't commission any book! The Injeel was transmitted by mouth at first and may have been later written down by the disciples. No one has control on what is then written and transmitted then.

3. So the words transmitted by preaching can't be spread to others? This your kind of Junkie logic baffles me!
Injeel was revealed to Jesus and he preached it to all he was able to. Some preached same message to others. Some wrote it down and transmitted them.

4. As time goes on additions crept in as there was standard control of those books!

AntiChristian:
How will i know that? What is evident from the Bible you have today is that the writers are dubious! Matthew may not have written Matthew! Paul may not have written Hebrews! The Injeel spoken of in the Qur'an is what Allah revealed to him for the children of Israel! It is not the birth and biography of Jesus from 0-33yrs and some disciples/Historian/Paul's letters and additions!

Kobojunkie:
1. 2. So you now concede to what is the general history of the Gospels, abi?

Why would the disciples need this control you speak of though. It wasn't as though the works were printed by them after it was sent out.

3. Simply trying to follow your line of reasoning there is all.

So the injeel was not lost and corrupted as you originally claimed?

4. Oh, wait, it was corrupted, not from its beginnings but over time, and this couldn't have been before Allah spoke of the Injeel 650 years after Jesus Christ, could it?

Kobojunkie:
There is more to the question asked than your focus on language but instead Allah's claim in regards to his message to peoples....pay attention! 2. I find the question interesting is why I too would like to read your view on this given the claims you have made so far.

IslamVIRGINS:


Not only confused, they are fools including AntiChristian

Maynman:


The original ones are even the most corrupted.
The original and earliest New Testament bible is called?

advocatejare:


Answer my outstanding questions before you ask your questions


1. Do you believe in supernatural or paranormal activities?

2. Were your parents atheists before they gave birth to you an atheist? Or were your generations atheists from the first to now?


If you can’t answer the above questions, I’ll keep ignoring you.

AntiChristian:
1. Chai! Injeel is not the Biblical New Testament. The NT was allegedly authored by Paul, some disciples and Historians. The Injeel on the had was just transmitted and spread.

2. Any scripture would need a control and in the absence of such then the originals would go extinct! The original manuscript that was written by the disciples does not exist anywhere today! What is available is a copied copy raised to power God knows!

3. The Qur'an can't be said in such light! The revelation was not corrupted at the beginning! It will always be corrupted later by copyists, etc. Simply narrate to us how the Bible was compiled and preserved! Enough of all this front and back! 1Samuel 13:1 Evangelists, Pastors, Missionaries, and Bishops will not stop telling us that the Bible is the word of God. When we study the Bible carefully, we will discover that this is the greatest blasphemy of all time.

The book of 1Samuel 13:1 and its translation in versions of the Bible has caused a great embarrassment for Christian apologists: 1.NEW INTERNATIONAL VERSION
Saul was thirty years old when he became king, and he reigned over Israel forty- two years.2. ENGLISH STANDARD VERSION
Saul lived for one year and then became king, and when he had reigned for two years over Israel. 3. KING JAMES BIBLE Saul reigned one year; and when he had reigned two years over Israel 4. NET BIBLE Saul was [thirty] years old when he began to reign; he ruled over Israel for [forty] years. 5. NEW AMERICAN STANDARD BIBLE 1977
Saul was forty years old when he began to reign, and he reigned thirty-two years over Israel.6. JPS TANAKH 1917
Saul was --years old when he began to reign; and two years he reigned over Israel.7. AMERICAN STANDARD VERSION
Saul was forty years old when he began to reign; and when he had reigned two years over Israel

8. YOUNG'S LITERAL VERSION
A son of a year is Saul in his reigning, yea, two years he hath reigned over Israel

The bible is far from being the word of God and as David Cross puts it, ” Back when the bible was written, then edited, then rewritten, rewritten, then re-edited, then translated from dead languages, then re-translated, then edited, then rewritten, then given to kings for them to take their favorite parts, then rewritten, then re-rewritten, then translated again, then given to the pope for him to approve, then rewritten, then edited again, then re-re-re- re-rewritten again...all based on stories that were told orally 30 to 90 years after they happened, to people who did not how to write...so..."

Any seeker of truth should not find it difficult to disregard the bible being the complete word of God rather it is a book that contains the words of God, Historians, Poets, Kings, etc...

From the book, 'Truth for the Truth Seekers - (A total demystification of the Bible and Christianity (Revised Edition)
Bashir Lucas Samson Lukman

AntiChristian:


You will have to answer if Jesus spoke/Preached in Greek anytime in his life time.

AntiChristian:
And the answer given is appropriate for the question. Let him deal with it not you since you didn't ask the question in the first place?
And the Greek for "Good news" is not "Engelion" as s/he said!

The Arabic word Injil (إنجيل) as found in Islamic texts, and now used also by Muslim non-Arabs and Arab non-Muslims, is derived from the Syriac Aramaic word awongaleeyoon (ܐܘܢܓܠܝܘܢ) found in the Peshitta (Syriac translation of the Bible),[1] which in turn derives from the Greek word euangelion (Εὐαγγέλιον)[2] of the originally Greek language New Testament, where it means "good news" (from Greek "Εὐ αγγέλιον"; Old English "gōdspel"; Modern English "gospel", or "evangel" as an archaism, cf. e.g. Spanish "evangelio" The word Injil occurs twelve times in the Quran
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel_in_Islam#:~:text=Injil%20(Arabic%3A%20%D8%A5%D9%86%D8%AC%D9%8A%D9%84%2C%20romanized,Gospel%20of%20Jesus%20(Isa).

AntiChristian:


And the answer given is appropriate for the question. Let him deal with it not you since you didn't ask the question in the first place?

And the Greek for "Good news" is not "Engelion" as s/he said!

SlayerofSatan:
The Koine Greek in which the New Testament is written refers to the New Testament as Engelion or Eengelion from the the world Evangelical is derived! That is also where allah got the name for what he called the Injeel!

Another question for you: Why does Yaweh's name appear several times in the koran, but allah's name doesn't appear anywhere in either the koran or the Bible?

SlayerofSatan:
That doesn't answer the question. Did the Bible say that divine messages are only to be delivered in the Hebrew language?

It is the koran which is making that claim and yet instead of using a Hebrew name to describe the book that was allegedly given to Jesus, the koran uses the same Greek language in which the early Christians compiled the New Testament! Isn't it rather stupid of allah to be imitating the same Christians who he accused of corrupting his "book"?

AntiChristian:
This is the fool kobojunkie is supporting! Anyways there are Christians. One with Christ!

AntiChristian:
Let's first agree that you lied that the Greek word "Engelion" which means "Good News! Engelion has no meaning from Greek as far as i know but euangelion/evangelion. But you just want something close to injeel ba?
Which Language did your Jesus speak? Greek!

Allah is the one that made you born stupid and retarded and we hope your Kind of stupidity won't be hereditary!
This is the fool kobojunkie is supporting!

Anyways there are Christians. One with Christ!

Maynman:


Allah and elohim means same thing. The reason you didn’t see “allah” is because of the language tanakh and chrestian book were written in.

And yahweh is a tetragrammation gotten from “yhwh”it’s not really a word.

SlayerofSatan:
Elohim is a title, not a name. Yaweh is God's name in the Bible.

Tetragrammaton is simply a way of explaining to name YHWH. The word tetragrammaton is Greek and it simply means "4 characters" referring to the 4 characters in the Judeo-Christian God's Name.

So how does one explain the fact that Yaweh appears in the koran several times while allah which in Islam is both a name and a title, NEVER appears anywhere in the Bible?

Kobojunkie:
1. I made no mention of the New Testament here. According to SlayerofSatan, the word "injeel" is derived from a greek word which translates "Good News" does it not? And the good News taught by Jesus Christ is the Gospel, is that not so?

2. I am still not aware of what kind of control of transmission you insist should exist. People die.... the disciples died... what form of control do you insist would have been necessary in there case?

The bulk of what we have today of scriptures are from manuscripts that predate Allah's reference to the Injeel 650 years after Jesus Christ, so are you saying those copies were already corrupted before Allah made reference to the followers of the Injeel?

3. This topic here is about learning exactly when it is your claim that scripture was corrupted took place. No need for unnecessary deviations, please. I am curious to at least know if this supposed corruption took place before or after Allah made a reference to the followers of Injeel who you now claim were Muslims that predates Mohammed, suggesting Mohammed's mission really not necessary, to begin with since that would imply he brought no new revelation.

Kobojunkie:
I support him because I ask that you answer the question he asked? WOW...

Anyways, I still insist you answer the question rather than focus on the language factor because barring the error in his copying of the word, the question asked is a valid one. Recall, this is all about trying to figure out what point in time the Injeel was corrupted. Initially, you had claimed the writers were to blame, a claim you later attempted to deny. Now, you seem to have backtracked on that and so we are going through to find out when exactly this corruption which you claim took place. .

Kobojunkie:
Well, I think it may have been culled from a source such as this... "Evangelion" instead of "Engelion".
Howver, the point is the Injeel is associated with Jesus Christ and what Jesus Christ brought is the Good news which is the Gospel .

And no, you skated around the question, insisted instead on focusing on language when the other's focus seemed to be on the claim that Allah insisted information had to be delivered in the local language to those who it was meant for.

AntiChristian:
1. He lied. And you followed the lie just as you and other Christians do!

2. Ok, i will tell you. Matthew was aclaimed to have written Matthew. Yet in Matthew 9:9 "And as Jesus passed forth from thence, he saw a man, named Matthew, sitting at the receipt of custom: and he saith unto him, Follow me. And he arose, and followed him." Definitely Matthew never wrote the above. And Even if we skip the above and similar ones like this, Jesus met Matthew at this point so where did he got the information prior to him meeting Jesus? How do we authenticate the facts from Matthew Ch 1-9? What are the names of those that gave him the reports or those he copied from?

3. Luke allegedly started his epistle with Many have undertaken to draw up an account of the things that have been fulfilled among us, 2 just as they were handed down to us by those who from the first were eyewitnesses and servants of the word. 3 With this in mind, since I myself have carefully investigated everything from the beginning, I too decided to write an orderly account for you, most excellent Theophilus, 4 so that you may know the certainty of the things you have been taught. But the questions to be asked are 1. Who are the Eyewitnesses? Their names? Are they truthful? Forgetful? Did they really say what they claim?

4. I don't know when cos i wasn't alive then! The original manuscripts of the New Testament books are not known to have survived This is a confirmed truth in Islam and Christianity! Allah making reference to it does not mean it is still relevant! Allah made mention of Zabur of David 3 times in the Qur'an, Injeel of Jesus 12 times and Torah of Moses 18 times in the Qur'an. All of them had people who believed in the them and followed them after the messenger they were given to. If Moses came with the Torah which he can be used to rule a nation then why the need for Jesus and NT?
This is understandable!

Maynman:


Allah is also a title, not a name.
Yahweh does not mean elohim. Yahweh is one of the Elohim.

Tetragrammation is a way of making words with consonants.
“Yahweh” is just one of the tetragrammation of yhwh. Which was in greek, same language New Testament was written in.

Tetragrammation is simply a word. “Tetra” means 4
And grammar means letter.
The word originated before Christianity was even created. The tetragrammation is referring to the Israelite god.

You should look up on who is yahweh of shasu tribe.

Yahweh one of the tetragrammation of yhwh, is an Egyptian hieroglyphs, how is an Egyptian hieroglyphs appearing in your bible also?

When your “jesus” was alive, he called “allah” as god.