John 1:1–2 tells us that the “Word” was “with the GOD” in the beginning, but it does not say that the Word was “the GOD.” (Why not re-examine a Greek-English Interlinear Translation of John:1: vss 1–2+18.

Although the Bible teaches that there are many Gods (1 Corinthians 8:5–6) … the Bible teaches that there is only one true Almighty God Jehovah and he is the Creator and “GOD of Gods” … (Genesis 17:1 and Deuteronomy 10:17, Joshua 22:22) so, this means that he is greater than lesser “gods.” Compare Psalm 136:2; Daniel 2:47 and 11:36; Psalm 82:1-7 and 95:3. Other spirit creatures, the angels, are called “gods” in the Hebrew language in Psalm 8:4-6, but often translated into English as “angels" (KJV) or as “heavenly beings” (NIV). Compare Hebrews 2 :5-9. These ‘angels’ are also referred to as “sons of God." See Job 1:6; 2:1 and 38:7. Jesus is > a son of God, in fact, he is the uniquely-begotten Son of God, as Firstborn in the beginning. But, his heavenly Father never had a beginning, because He has always existed in all past eternity. Psalm 90:2, & 93:2.

John 1:1-2 says that the Word was ‘with God’ …in the beginning. See also John 1:18. Can you explain this verse 18 with parts A & B? Well, Try part B first and then see what happens when you explain part A. Try it both ways.

(The Bible's original Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek Scriptures did not have capital letters and small letters... Only one size. Written manuscripts later had upper and lower case letters, and were used since the invention of the printing press about 1500 A.D. So, religious leaders, monks, priests, scribes and theologians and Bible editors made the choices for either ‘God’ or ‘god.’)

Do you have your Bible handy? Do you have access to a Greek-English “New Testament" either as an interlinear version or a parallel-column edition? You can go online. Examine John 1:1-2. Why aren't the 2 words for “God" spelled the same in Greek? How come the Greek text indicates that “the Word was with the God" …but it does NOT say that “the Word was the God.”.

Who has looked up the texts at John 1:18 and John 17:1-6 and 20 :17. and 1 John 4:12? …and is now ready to comment with a correct remark.?

Who did Jesus pray to? Compare Luke 23:34 and vs 46, and Matthew 27:46.

Jesus has brothers, Hebrews 2:11-17. But, does Almighty God have brothers.? Jesus said we should pray to ‘our Father in heaven,’ Matt. 6:9.

Does the Father pray to anyone? …Um, Jesus prayed to someone higher than himself. If Jesus was God, would he pray to anyone

Who can explain the difference between “Almighty God" the Father (Genesis 17:1) and “Mighty God the son” (Isaiah 9:6)

Who knows the definition of the term “firstborn” and the co-relation between Colossians 1:15-19 and Hebrews 1:1–6.?? Was Almighty God ever “born.?” The words “firstborn son” may indicate that other “sons” came later. See Job chapter 1: vs 6; and 38: vss 4–7.

What about 1 Timothy 2:5-6 that says that Jesus is “the Mediator between God and mankind.”? So , who is above and who is in the middle?+

Why do many Bible versions, including yours, insert the expression “a god” at Acts 28:6 and Exodus 7:1.? (The original languages do not have the expression “a god” in these texts.)

Is any “son" the same age as his “father.” (so, which one existed first.? …and who came later? Is the Father really the ‘twin-brother’ to Jesus as co-equal?) The word ‘twinity' is not in any Bible verse.

How come the word “trinity" (3 in 1) is not in any Bible manuscript-texts (Greek or Latin) for the past 2,000 years or ever before

Since God's personal name has been removed more than 6,000 times in modern Bibles, people have re-focused their attention to another name, Jesus, used about 900 times in the Christian Scriptures. So people have been misled to misunderstand a famous name (Jesus) “under heaven" in Acts 4:12, but far above, … way up in heaven… there is a greater Name: JEHOVAH the Most High. See Psalm 83:18 (KJV).

So, can you compare your other Bible with the King James Version at Genesis 22:14, Exodus 17:15, Judges 6:24, Psalm 83:18, Isaiah 12:2-5 and Isaiah 26:4.. So, Whose Name is being honored in these few references? Most other Bible versions have removed God's Divine Name, but they have kept the Devil's name in their revised Bibles.!

Finally, the Bible itself makes it clear that Almighty God created a son in his image who is identified as a “mighty God" in Isaiah 9:6. When the son was born on earth as a human he was lower than the angels, Hebrews 2:9. Then he was given a different name …”Jesus" which means in Hebrew “Jehovah is salvation.” These 2 persons are united in purpose “as one" but, they are not the same person. John 17:3–6. Jesus prayed that his apostles and future disciples would all become “one" with the Father in the sense of unity, … in agreement. --John 17:11, 20–23.

( P.S.) I hope these verses help you to understand more of what is in the Holy Bible. If… if… you look up all the verses cited above, it with take about 37 minutes, but it is well worth it. THANK YOU FOR YOUR SPIRITUAL CURIOSITY.!)

Written by Glenn Brotherton
~Quoted from Quora~

PS: Found this and thought more people need to hear it too

PS: You can't argue anything reasonable unless you've read and understood the passages of the cited Bible portions. Don't be a Tom.
Any reasonable comments please feel free.