The greatest deception of all ages is nothing but macro-evolution of one species into another species.

Evolution is a theory in a biological
science which makes an attempt to explain how different species of life came to exist in this world. Evolutionists asserts that all life forms originate from a single common ancestor, probably the first living cell that thrived on the surface of the earth. They proclaimed that all other life forms evolve gradually from this single cell and the transformation from one species of life to another species always required thousands or millions of generations. This allegedly explain the reason why no one has ever observed macro-evolution in real life (i:e how one life form transforms and evolves into a different life form) since the whole transformation is a gradual process which can take millions of years to occur.

However, on close examination, you will discover that the whole idea of gradual evolution proposed by evolutionists is baseless, meaningless and nothing but deception of the highest order. This is because the creation of new individual life form always begin from SCRATCH--i:e from a single cell--and not from where the gradual evolution supposedly stopped. For example, the creation of new animal form (like mammals) is always from a single zygotic cell and not from lower animal species (like reptiles)

Given that all macro-evolutionary processes occur through embryonic development, why would evolutionary creation of one animal form (like mammal) from a lower animal species (like reptile) took millions of generations in the past but the creation of the same mammal in the womb from a single cell (which is far far lower than a reptile in evolutionary tree) required only a single generation at this present time ?

It's like you are being told that the journey of Lagos from Ibadan by a certain vehicle took millions of hours in the past but at this present time the journey of Lagos from Maiduguri (which is even more far far away than Ibadan) using the same vehicle required only one hour at this present time.

Can't you perceive the falsehood and deception in this assertion ?

There are some people who claim to have an absolute belief in the existence of God but have a very great abhorrence for religion . The sole reason for this very aversion towards religion is the assertion that religion has allegedly caused more harm to humanity than good. But what these people has overlooked is the fact that there is nothing in this world that doesn't come with its merit and demerits. However, enumerating the pros and cons of religion is not what is intended to be addressed.


The question needed to be addressed is the possibility of accepting God while rejecting religion . In other words, is it even logically possible to believe in God and yet disbelieve in religion ?


To answer this very question, a concise definition of religion must firstly be known and understood.


According to one dictionary, religion is a set of organized beliefs, practices, and systems that most often (not always) relate to the worship of a controlling force, such as a personal God or any supernatural entity.


There's absolutely no way in which we can talk about religion without talking about belief. In fact, the two ( religion and belief) can be used interchangeably and they cannot be divorced from each other. Even our belief in a Personal God who controls the affairs of the world constitute what is known as religion because there are some people who disbelieve or doubt the existence of such a Personal God (like atheists and agnostics).

Hence, religion is simply a world view adopted by a particular set of people. So there's no any matured and intelligent human being that is not an adherent of one religion or the other. Therefore, proclaiming that you love God but hate religion is nothing but sheer ignorance about the concept of God and religion on the part of the person who made such a baseless and superficial claim.


The fact that some people execute their evil acts under the pretext of religion doesn't make religion to be a bad entity. Both the Bible and the Qur'an made mention of religion in a positive way. For example, James, an apostle and a brother of Jesus Christ (pbuh) recorded to have said in the Bible as follows ;


Religion that God our Father accepts as pure and faultless is this : to look after orphans and widows in their distress and to keep oneself from being polluted by the world" (James 1:27)

Similarly, in the Qur'an, God Almighty says as follows ;


"This day, those who disbelieved have given up all hope of your religion, so fear them not, but fear Me. This day, I have perfected your religion for you and I completed My Favour upon you, and I have chosen for you Islam as your religion (Qur'an 5:3)


See how both the Bible and the Qur'an made mention of religion in a positive manner !


If religion is only an evil idea invented by some people in the past without being endorsed by God, then why divine scriptures would made mention of the word "religion" in such a positive way ?
Or are we to believe that both Qur'an and the Bible are not truly inspired by God since the two scriptures made mention of the word religion in a positive manner ?


Have you now seen that it is completely illogical and radically incompatible to say that "I believe in God but I disbelieve in religion" or "I love God but I hate religion" ?


But if you want to go extreme by costly believe that neither Qur'an nor Bible is truly inspired by God simply because they made mention of religion, then your belief in a personal God would be seriously questioned. Do you know the reason why ? Please take your time and continue the reading.


If you disbelieve in both the Bible and Qur'an as the word of God, then you have to believe in a God who can allow a liar to impersonate Him and assume His identity. This is because both the Bible and the Qur'an contains many verses which appear to be coming directly from God's mouth. For example see the biblical and Qur'anic verses cited below ;


"I am the LORD, who made all things, who alone stretched out the heavens, who spread out the earth by myself" (Isaiah 44:24).


"I made them not to witness the creation of the heavens and the earth, and not even their own creation ; and neither do I have any need to take as helpers those that lead people astray" (Qur'an 18:51)

God is unmistakenly declaring to us in these two verses that He was all alone during the creation of the Heavens and the Earth


Hence, anybody who denies these two verses as the word of God must compulsorily believe their author to be a great impersonator of God. In other words, if you reject these Biblical and Qur'anic verses as the word of God, then you have to assume that the person speaking to us here was a great deceiver who pretended to be God.
This is the first point that I want all reasonable people to admit. It is either you believe in these two verses found in the Bible and the Qur'an as the word of God or you believe in them as the word of a great impersonator that assumed the identity of God. There is no third alternative.


But if you as a truthful person can never allow a liar to impersonate you or assume your identity to deceive some innocent people, why do you think God Almighty, who is more truthful than you, would allow such a thing ?

Why would most truthful God allow a liar to speak in His name or assume His identity ?

Of course, if you would never allow such a thing, then God Almighty is in a better position than you to disallow such a thing.

There is no any instance in the history when God Almighty allow a liar to impersonate Him, or allow a liar to assume His identity or allow a liar to speak in His name for a long period of time.

In fact, through His dealing with Hananiah ( the false prophet who spoke in the name of God in the Bible ), God Almighty demonstrated to us that He would never allow such a thing to happen ;


"Then the prophet Jeremiah said to Hananiah the prophet, ‘Listen, Hananiah! The Lord has not sent you, yet you have persuaded this nation to trust in lies. Therefore this what the Lord says: I am about to remove you from the face of the earth. This very year you are going to die, because you have preached rebellion against the Lord. In the seventh month of that same year, Hananiah the prophet died (Jeremiah 28:15-17).


It's very clear that the sole reason why God allowed Hananiah, the false prophet, to meet his untimely death is because he spoke a lie in the name of God.


Hence, if God says in the Qur'an as follows ;

"this day, I have perfected your religion for you and I have completed My Favour upon you, and I have chosen for you Islam as your religion (Qur'an 5:3)

then you have to sincerely believe that God has really spoken to us since He would never allow a liar to speak in His name, impersonate Him or assume His identity as demonstrated by logical and scriptural evidence cited just above.

Therefore, if God has realIy spoken to us in Qur'an 5:3 cited above , then how can you logically say "I love God but I hate religion" ?

The concept of God and religion is intertwined and can never be separated from each other. Even if you deny the existence of God, you are still subscribing to one religion because in one way or the other you must believe in something that controlled the shaping and development of all the organs in your body from a single zygotic cell when you were in the womb of your mother. It is now left for you to decide whether this very something is intelligent God or an evolutionary process of chance.

Abdulgaffar22:
Did all the people before the arrival of prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) have warners or not ?

Qur'an 36:6 says
;
لِتُنۡذِرَ قَوۡمًا مَّاۤ اُنۡذِرَ اٰبَآؤُهُمۡ فَهُمۡ غٰفِلُوۡنَ

"In order that you (Muhammad-pbuh) may warn a people whose forefathers were not warned, so they are heedless"


But, Qur'an 35:24
says ;
ِنَّاۤ اَرۡسَلۡنٰكَ بِالۡحَـقِّ بَشِيۡرًا وَّنَذِيۡرًاؕ وَاِنۡ مِّنۡ اُمَّةٍ اِلَّا خَلَا فِيۡهَا نَذِيۡرٌ‏

"Surely We have sent you with the truth as a bearer of good news and a warner; and there is not a nation but a warner has gone among them"



Again, Qur'an 13:7
says ;
وَيَقُوۡلُ الَّذِيۡنَ كَفَرُوۡا لَوۡلَاۤ اُنۡزِلَ عَلَيۡهِ اٰيَةٌ مِّنۡ رَّبِّهٖؕ اِنَّمَاۤ اَنۡتَ مُنۡذِرٌ​ وَّ لِكُلِّ قَوۡمٍ هَادٍ

"And the disbelievers say: "Why is not a sign sent down to him from his Lord?" You are only a warner, and to every set of people there is a guide"



The first verse (Qur'an 36:6) above shows that before the arrival of prophet Muhammad (pbuh), there are some set of people (like forefathers of the Arabs) that did not have any warner (to warn them against the punishment of Allah).

However, the last two verses (Qur'an 35:24 and Qur'an 13:7) appear to say otherwise by stating that every nation has a warner and every people has a guide
.

Therefore, how are we to understand all these verses together without any contradictions ?

The key to understanding all these verses lies in knowing the actual meaning of the original Arabic words used in all these verses.

For example, the Arabic word ummah (which usually means a religious nation) used in Qur'an 35:24 is broad and more general than the Arabic word qawm (which means a set of people) used in Qur'an 36:6
.


Hence, while Qur'an 36:6 is only referring to a set of people (qawm), before the advent of prophet Muhammad (pbuh), who had no warner, then Qur'an 35:24 is only saying that ; just like this last and present religious nation (ummah) established by the arrival of prophet Muhammad (pbuh) has its own warner, all the previous religious nations (i:e all the past ummah) before the arrival of prophet Muhammad (pbuh) also has their own warners.


So what can be understood from these two verses is that warners were sent to all "ummah" (i:e all religious nations) as stated in Qur'an 35:24 but warners were not sent to all "qawm" (i:e all different set of people)
as can be deduced from Qur'an 36:6. This is because "ummah" (a religious nation) is far more greater than "qawm" (a set of people). Therefore, there is no any contradiction between the two verses.


There is no any place in the Qur'an where it is stated that warners were sent to all different set of people. In fact, Allah openly declared as follows ;
وَلَوۡ شِئۡنَا لَبَـعَثۡنَا فِىۡ كُلِّ قَرۡيَةٍ نَّذِيۡرًا

"And had We willed, We would have raised a warner in every town (Qur'an 25:51)"

This simply shows that warners were not sent to every town where different set of people (i:e qawm) are living.

Now that we are able to resolve the illusory contradiction between Qur'an 36:6 and Qur'an 35:24, then what about Qur'an 13:7 which says ;

"And the disbelievers say: "Why is not a sign sent down to him from his Lord?" You are only a warner, and to every set of people (i:e qawm) there is a guide"

Again, the key to understanding this verse lies in checking the original Arabic word. The original Arabic word used for "guide" in the verse above is "هَادٍ" which is different from "نَّذِيۡرا" which means "warner".

Qur'an 13:7 did NOT say
; " ......You are only a warner, and to every set of people, there is a "warner" (despite the fact that the word "warner" is expected to be used in conformity with the statement before it).

However, the verse cautiously say ; " You are only a warner, and to every set of people there is a guide (هَادٍ )".

If Qur'an 13:7 use "warner" in place of "guide", then a real contradiction would occur with Qur'an 36:6 which says that some set of people (forefathers of the Arabs) did not have any warner.

Similarly, if Qur'an 35:24 use the word qawm (set of people) in place of the word ummah (nation), then real contradiction would occur again with Qur'an 36:6
.
You can see that all the words in the Qur'an are carefully chosen to avoid any kind of contradiction
;
لَا يَتَدَبَّرُونَ الْقُرْآنَ وَلَوْ كَانَ مِنْ عِندِ غَيْرِ اللَّهِ لَوَجَدُوا فِيهِ اخْتِلَافًا كَثِيرًا

"Do they not then consider the Qur'an carefully? Had it been from other than Allah, they would surely have found therein much contradictions" (Qur'an 4:82)


Some people may want to reason ; what is the difference between a warner
and a guide ?

A guide is not necessary to be a warner. For example, all the signs in the Heavens and Earth (like existence of the sun, the moon and the stars, different kind of animals, different kinds of fruits and flowers, sending down of rain from the sky, changes in the direction of wind and alternation of day and night) are only a guide to existence and oneness of Allah. All these signs are not warners against the punishment of Allah.

Similarly, prophets of Allah like Abraham and Ishmael (peace be upon them) that once lived in Makkah to build Kaaba were only a guide to the forefathers of the Arabs. They were not warners to them. If Abraham and Ishmael were warners to the Arabs, then why would Qur'an 36:6 says whose forefathers were not warned ? So it is only the prophet Muhammad (pbuh) that was sent as a warner
to the Arabs.


As you can see, a guide is not necessary to be a warner. But a warner must definitely be a guide. Therefore, all warners are guide but not all guide are warners just like all messengers of Allah-رسل (like Moses, Jesus and Muhammad-pbuh) are prophets-نبي but not all prophets (like Adam) are messengers. The first messenger sent by Allah to the people of the earth is prophet Nuh.


In conclusion, we can now conveniently say that all religious nations (i:e all ummah) have warners ( Qur'an 35:24, 16:36, 10:47,) but all different set of people ( i:e all qawm ) do not have warners (Qur'an 36:6, 32:3, 25:51, 28:46).

What all different set of people (i:e all qawm) have is a guide(Qur'an 13:7), which can either be a warner or not.

Hence, any set of people which are not opportuned to receive or hear about any warner in this world can still be judged on the Day of Resurrection based on the fact that they must have a guide
like ;

(i) signs in the creation that testify to the existence and oneness of Allah, and

(ii) their conscience (innate ability to distinguish between the good and evil deeds).


This very analysis came from my own personal research and thinking since I couldn't find any tafsir which directly addresses all these verses together. In case you have a different view, please kindly let me know.

Thanks for taking your time in reading carefully to the end !

The above write up is written in response to one enemy of Islam who wanted to show that there is contradiction between Qur'an 36:6 and Qur'an 35:24

Did all the people before the arrival of prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) have warners or not ?

Qur'an 36:6 says
;
لِتُنۡذِرَ قَوۡمًا مَّاۤ اُنۡذِرَ اٰبَآؤُهُمۡ فَهُمۡ غٰفِلُوۡنَ

"In order that you (Muhammad-pbuh) may warn a people whose forefathers were not warned, so they are heedless"


But, Qur'an 35:24
says ;
ِنَّاۤ اَرۡسَلۡنٰكَ بِالۡحَـقِّ بَشِيۡرًا وَّنَذِيۡرًاؕ وَاِنۡ مِّنۡ اُمَّةٍ اِلَّا خَلَا فِيۡهَا نَذِيۡرٌ‏

"Surely We have sent you with the truth as a bearer of good news and a warner; and there is not a nation but a warner has gone among them"



Again, Qur'an 13:7
says ;
وَيَقُوۡلُ الَّذِيۡنَ كَفَرُوۡا لَوۡلَاۤ اُنۡزِلَ عَلَيۡهِ اٰيَةٌ مِّنۡ رَّبِّهٖؕ اِنَّمَاۤ اَنۡتَ مُنۡذِرٌ​ وَّ لِكُلِّ قَوۡمٍ هَادٍ

"And the disbelievers say: "Why is not a sign sent down to him from his Lord?" You are only a warner, and to every set of people there is a guide"



The first verse (Qur'an 36:6) above shows that before the arrival of prophet Muhammad (pbuh), there are some set of people (like forefathers of the Arabs) that did not have any warner (to warn them against the punishment of Allah).

However, the last two verses (Qur'an 35:24 and Qur'an 13:7) appear to say otherwise by stating that every nation has a warner and every people has a guide
.

Therefore, how are we to understand all these verses together without any contradictions ?

The key to understanding all these verses lies in knowing the actual meaning of the original Arabic words used in all these verses.

For example, the Arabic word ummah (which usually means a religious nation that can encompass people of many centuries) used in Qur'an 35:24 is broad and more general than the Arabic word qawm (which only means a set of people) used in Qur'an 36:6
.


Hence, while Qur'an 36:6 is only referring to a set of people (qawm), before the advent of prophet Muhammad (pbuh), who had no warner, then Qur'an 35:24 is only saying that ; just like this last and present religious nation (ummah) has its own warner (which is of course Prophet Muhammad-pbuh), all the previous religious nations (i:e all the past ummah) before the arrival of prophet Muhammad (pbuh) also had their own warners.


So what can be understood from these two verses is that warners were sent to all "ummah" (i:e all religious nations) as stated in Qur'an 35:24 but warners were not sent to all "qawm" (i:e all different set of people) as can be deduced from Qur'an 36:6. This is because "ummah" (a religious nation which can encompass people of many centuries ) is far more greater than "qawm" (just a set of people). Therefore, there is no any contradiction between the two verses.


There is no any place in the Qur'an where it is stated that warners were sent to all different set of people. In fact, Allah openly declared as follows ;
وَلَوۡ شِئۡنَا لَبَـعَثۡنَا فِىۡ كُلِّ قَرۡيَةٍ نَّذِيۡرًا

"And had We willed, We would have raised a warner in every town (Qur'an 25:51)"

This simply shows that warners were not sent to every town where different set of people (i:e qawm) are living.

Now that we are able to resolve the illusory contradiction between Qur'an 36:6 and Qur'an 35:24, then what about Qur'an 13:7 which says ;

"And the disbelievers say: "Why is not a sign sent down to him from his Lord?" You are only a warner, and to every set of people (i:e qawm) there is a guide"

Again, the key to understanding this verse lies in checking the original Arabic word. The original Arabic word used for "guide" in the verse above is "هَادٍ" which is different from "نَّذِيۡرا" which means "warner".

Qur'an 13:7 did NOT say
; " ......You are only a warner, and to every set of people, there is a "warner" (despite the fact that the word "warner" is expected to be used in conformity with the word warner that came before it ; just like they are used together in Qur'an 35:24 quoted above).

However, the verse cautiously say ; " You are only a warner, and to every set of people there is a guide (هَادٍ )".

If Qur'an 13:7 use "warner" in place of "guide", then a real contradiction would occur with Qur'an 36:6 which says that some set of people (forefathers of the Arabs) did not have any warner.

Similarly, if Qur'an 35:24 use the word qawm (set of people) in place of the word ummah (religious nation), then real contradiction would occur again with Qur'an 36:6
.
You can see that all the words in the Qur'an are carefully chosen to avoid any kind of contradiction
;
لَا يَتَدَبَّرُونَ الْقُرْآنَ وَلَوْ كَانَ مِنْ عِندِ غَيْرِ اللَّهِ لَوَجَدُوا فِيهِ اخْتِلَافًا كَثِيرًا

"Do they not then consider the Qur'an carefully? Had it been from other than Allah, they would surely have found therein much contradictions" (Qur'an 4:82)


Some people may want to reason ; what is the difference between a warner
and a guide ?

A guide is not necessary to be a warner. For example, all the signs in the Heavens and Earth (like existence of the sun, the moon and the stars, different kind of animals, different kinds of fruits and flowers, sending down of rain from the sky, changes in the direction of wind and alternation of day and night) are only a guide to existence and oneness of Allah. All these signs are not warners against the punishment of Allah.

Similarly, prophets of Allah like Abraham and Ishmael (peace be upon them) that once lived in Makkah to build Kaaba were only a guide to the forefathers of the Arabs. They were not warners to them. If Abraham and Ishmael were warners to the Arabs, then why would Qur'an 36:6 says whose forefathers were not warned ? So it is only the prophet Muhammad (pbuh) that was sent as a warner
to the Arabs.


As you can see, a guide is not necessary to be a warner. But a warner must definitely be a guide. Therefore, all warners are guide but not all guide are warners just like all messengers of Allah-رسل (like Moses, Jesus and Muhammad-pbuh) are prophets-نبي but not all prophets (like Adam) are messengers. The first messenger sent by Allah to the people of the earth is prophet Nuh.


In conclusion, we can now conveniently say that all religious nations (i:e all ummah) have warners ( Qur'an 35:24, 16:36, 10:47,) but all different set of people ( i:e all qawm ) do not have warners (Qur'an 36:6, 32:3, 25:51, 28:46).

What all different set of people (i:e all qawm) have is a guide(Qur'an 13:7), which can either be a warner or not.

Hence, any set of people which are not opportuned to receive or hear about any warner in this world can still be judged on the Day of Resurrection based on the fact that they must have a guide
like ;

(i) signs in the creation that testify to the existence and oneness of Allah, and

(ii) their conscience (innate ability to distinguish between the good and evil deeds).


This very analysis came from my own personal research and thinking since I couldn't find any tafsir which directly addresses all these verses together. In case you have a different view, please kindly let me know.

Thanks for taking your time in reading carefully to the end !

HOW QUR'AN LOGICALLY PROVE ITSELF TO BE WORD OF GOD

While Muslims believe that Qur'an is the actual word of God dictated to prophet Muhammad (pbuh) through an Angel Gabriel, majority of the Non-Muslims believe that Qur'an was fabricated by prophet Muhammad (pbuh).


Some people assert that he was taught by one or more secret human teacher(s).


Again, some people believe that he was crazy.

Yet some people even go to an extent of saying that Qur'an was inspired by Satan.


These are the four common alternatives that non -Muslims usually put forward to explain the origin of the Qur’an since they insist that the book was not revealed by Almighty God; the very reason why they refuse to accept Islam.


Of course, if the Non-Muslims sincerely believe in God and sincerely believe that Qur'an is the final and the latest word of God revealed for the guidance of humanity, then what is keeping them away from Islam ?

Now, let us analyze these four possible alternatives one by one.


Is it possible that Qur’an was deliberately fabricated by Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) ?


It is a well known fact that he can neither read nor write. But wait !!!
Is there any irrefutable logical evidence to support this fact ? Yes there is. Just exercise patience, read to the end and not quickly jump into conclusion.

Qur’an 29:48
says;

“Neither did you (O Muhammad) read any book before this Qur’an, nor did you write any book with your right hand. In that case, indeed, the followers of falsehood might have doubted.”


Again Qur'an 7:157
says;

"Those who follow the Messenger, the Prophet who can neither read nor write........."

Now If the contents of these verses are not true and the prophet could actually read and write, how could he have comfortably called himself illiterate in these verses of Qur'an especially in the presence of his close relatives and friends who knew him very well for good forty years before his declaration as a prophet of God?

Would you lie to your close relatives and friends about the matter you know they are well acquainted with ? Certainly not !

In fact, the thought of launching such an easily-refutable lie (that he was an illiterate) in the midst of his close relatives and friends would never have crossed his mind for a moment if truly he was able to read and write.


Now having accepted that he was truly an illiterate who can neither read nor write, then how could he have allegedly fabricated many verses and allegedly plagiarized the Bible and then come up with such an eloquent book like Holy Qur’an?


Before he could come out with any fabricated verses or plagiarized verses of the Bible and then reciting it to the hearing of his companions directly from his memory, he must have;

1. Jotted down some points to be included in those verses

2. Constructed the verses,

3. Edited and arranged the verses in order,

4. Memorized them and

5. Rehearsed the recitation many times in his private room


Yet all these activities would be impossible for an illiterate person.


Furthermore, is it possible for the prophet to have a secret human teacher who assisted him to fabricate the Holy Qur’an since he could neither read nor write? But how can that human teacher be kept in secret for good 23 years (duration of Qur'anic revelation) and remain hidden from his immediate family and his companions who believed in him as a true prophet of God ?


Besides, the existence of such human teacher (who allegedly and secretly fabricated Qur'an for him) cannot ruled out the need for prophet's ability to read and write. This is because the fabricated verses must again be secretly read, revised, memorized and rehearsed in his private room before coming out to recite such verses to his companions directly from his memory ; something that is again impossible for an illiterate person.


Therefore, the problem of the prophet's inability to read and write still remain unresolved for those who want to insist or maintain that Qur'an is a word of a human being.


In fact, there are some events which completely refute the idea of Qur'an being fabricated and composed by human being. For example, there was a certain instance when the prophet was rushing in his attempt to grasp the revelation dictated to him by Angel Gabriel. He was in haste and he did not allow the Angel to finish before he would start his own recitation.
Therefore, God commanded the prophet as follows;


*Do not move your tongue to hastily memorize the revelation. It is for Us (God) to gather the Qur’an in your chest and to give you the ability to recite it. Therefore when We have recited it to you, follow its recitation. Then it is for Us (God) to make the Qur’an clear to you (Qur’an 75:16-19).


"....... And be not in haste (O Muhammad SAW) with the Quran before its revelation is completed to you, and say: "My Lord! Increase me in knowledge." (Qur'an 20:114)

See the great confidence established for the prophet in the first verse of Qur'an cited just above ! That is to say, the prophet Muhammad (pbuh) should stop rushing in an attempt to memorize the verses of the Qur'an because it is the duty of God Almighty to give him the ability to read the Qur'an from his memory and again it is the duty of God Almighty to make some clarifications to prophet Muhammad (pbuh) concerning some verses in the Qur'an which were not yet clear to him.

Where did this confidence come from ?

Just think carefully over this matter. How can an illiterate person deliberately lied against God in his book and still wrote again that the same God has promised him to give him the ability to read that book from his memory and again God has promised to make some clarifications regarding some verses which were not clear to him in a book that he himself fabricated against God ?

Does this make any sense to you ?

What do you think is going to happen suppose he could not remember a great portion of the verses while he has already declared that God has promised to give him the ability to read it from his memory ?
Would he not then be subjecting his declaration as a prophet of God to a risk and putting himself in a very tight corner ?

Can a person who deliberately lied against God put such a great confidence in the same God ? Certainly not !

Honestly, if the Holy Qur’an was fabricated by the prophet Muhammad (pbuh) or taught by any human teacher, all the verses above-

1. Commanding him not to be in haste,

2. Asking him to listen carefully,

3. Giving him confidence over the ability to recite the Qur’an directly from his memory, and

4. Yet promising him to make some clarifications regarding some verses which were not yet clear to him.

-would not be found on the pages of the Qur’an.

God Almighty declared as follows;


"Or do they say : "He has invented a lie against God ?" If God willed, He could have sealed your heart (so that you forget all that you know of the Qur'an). For God wipes out falsehood, and establishes the truth by His Word. Verily, He knows well what's inside the people's minds (Qur'an 42:24)"
That is to say God knows well what is inside the people's minds regarding their thinking about the origin of Qur'an.


Looking at it from another angle, before any one can just decide to engage in a very great evil deed like deliberately forging a lie against God in order to achieve some worldly gains or benefits, then the evil of his actions must have been appear to be good or fair in his own eyes. In other words, he must have been greatly deceived by his own mind. This is exactly the true state of minds of those that usually engage in perpetrating great evil deeds. They continue to engage in bad deeds because they are yet to know or realize that such evil deeds were only made to appear good or fair in their own eyes.


Now the question is ; if prophet Muhammad (pbuh) was truly one of those people that engage in such a great evil deed like deliberately forging a lie against God for the love of worldly pleasures, then how could he have known about this very concept and made mention of it in his book ?

See how this concept is paraphrased in the verse of the Qur'an cited below ;


"Can he, who is on a clear evidence from his Lord, be like one whose evil deed was only made to be good in his own eyes. And yet they follow their vain desires (Qur'an 47:14).


This verse can be reiterated as follows ;

"can a true prophet of God (who is on a clear evidence from his Lord) ever be like a false prophet ( whose evil deed was only made to be good in his own eyes) ?"


If prophet Muhammad (pbuh) knew very well about this very concept and still went ahead to engage in such a great evil deed like deliberately forging a lie against God, then would he not be knowingly fooling himself ?


Even, if we costly assume that he didn't know about this very concept by the time he allegedly decided to forge a lie against God, but later knew about it from one of his people. Then, there is completely no way he could have introduced such [/b]a discouraging and self-reproaching concept[/b] in his book especially after realizing that he would also be among those people whose evil deeds were only made to be good or fair in their own eyes.


Or is it possible for this concept to be secretly inserted into the Qur'an by someone else after the death of the prophet Muhammad (pbuh) ?


Of course, it is not possible. This is because if the concept is really talking about the people whose evil deeds were made to be good in their own eyes, then how could a perfect knower of this concept now decided to join this set of people by engaging in evil deed of inserting a falsehood into a book that people believed to be the word of God ?


From any perspective you think about it, the presence of this very concept in the Qur'an is enough to prove that the book could not have been a lie deliberately fabricated against God.

God Almighty declared ;

" Do they not think deeply over the Qur'an or their minds have been locked up (i:e from understanding it to be a divine book) (Qur'an 47:24)"



Furthermore, is it possible that prophet Muhammad (pbuh) was crazy to the extent that such craziness made him to be a pathological liar (rather than a deliberate liar) against God ?


Before that craziness would be manifested to the extent of causing him to call himself a prophet of God and boldly lying against God, it must have been detected and reported by his immediate family, and there would be no way to believe in him as a true prophet of God.


Even if we assume that his immediate family managed to hide the secret from the public, there is no way for such craziness to escape the notice of the companions of the prophet who always stayed with him and believed in him as a true prophet of God to the extent of dying as a martyr on the battle field.

Besides, how can a crazy author come up with such a clear and meaningful book like Holy Qur’an?



Finally is it possible that Qur’an was inspired by Satan? This is the most illogical and weakest of all the possible alternatives. In fact, a single verse from the Qur’an is enough to destroy this baseless assertion.

Qur’an 16:98 declares as follows:

"When you want to recite the Qur’an, seek God’s protection from Satan the accursed one".


How could Satan gives a command that before reading his book you must first seek refuge and protection with God against him?

Does this make any sense to you?

If Satan can really give such a divine command, then he has indeed oppose and divided against himself !

However, some people may want to stretch their imaginations far enough to assert that Satan is just that tricky and he can go to any length in order to achieve his aim.

But only the hypocritical Christians would make such a claim, for the Bible reads ;

"And if Satan opposes himself and is divided, he cannot stand; his end has come (Mark 3:26)."

Therefore, Qur'an could not have inspired by Satan if Qur'an 16:98 truly ask the Muslims to seek refuge and protection with God against Satan before starting its recitation.


Since all the four possible options that Non-Muslims usually put forward to explain the origin of Qur'an has been nullified, the only option which remain is that Qur'an is the actual word of God revealed to prophet Muhammad (pbuh) through an angel Gabriel.


Therefore, if the Holy Qur'an is the final and the latest word of God that came after the Bible, then all sincere Jews and Christians (who truly and sincerely believe in God) are expected to embrace Islam just like all citizens of a country are expected to give preference for the latest currency notes issued in that country over the old currency ones.

Dtruthspeaker:


Simple! If you look you would see that the only time man does not and cannot see God is when He is Up.

And when He comes down to earth to visit a person, they would see Him.

So all the people that saw Him didn't stay alive when He came down to Earth (Exodus 33:20) ?

If Abraham really saw God, why did John 1:18 says no one saw God AT ANY TIME

Dtruthspeaker:


It is up here already I tore your presentation to shreds and you could not counter.

So it is not a Truth you brought but an evil and even a blasphemy.

If you believe Abraham and others have seen God in Genesis 18 and 19, why did God says in Exodus 33:20 that no one can see me and stay alive ?

Did Abraham die after seeing God ?

Again, why did John 1:18 says no one has seen God at anytime ?

Dtruthspeaker:


Because sentence against an evil work is not executed speedily, therefore the heart of the sons of men is fully set in them to do evil.

Remember this, that the enemy hath reproached, O Lord, and that the foolish people have blasphemed thy name.

Arise, O God, plead thine own cause: remember how the foolish man reproacheth thee daily.

Forget not the voice of thine enemies: the tumult of those that rise up against thee increaseth continually

Destroy thou them, O God;(and refrain not) let them fall by their own counsels; cast them out in the multitude of their transgressions; for they have rebelled against thee.

I knew very well that you don't have interest in knowing the truth. That's the reason you why you refuse to summarize your point.

Dtruthspeaker:


See yourself devil self! It is written He Looked, He Spoke, He Walked, He ate clearly things we share in likeness, but you reach up to insult Him.

Because sentence against an evil work is not executed speedily, therefore do you do evil.

O God, how long shall the adversary reproach? shall the enemy blaspheme thy name for ever?

O Lord please, come and send these devils to their everlasting punishments.

Please summarize all the jargons above into a straightforward point.

Do you still believe that God Almighty can change to something that urinate and defecate ?

sonmvayina:


There are other worlds apart from earth...

Other worlds like Paradise or Hell ?

Dtruthspeaker:


Why are you always doing evil? Why do you not fear God? Why do you always bring Him into our human filth?

It's very you that do not fear God and lack respect for Him by believing that God can change to become a man that urinate and defecate !

Dtruthspeaker:


As iPhone cannot determine it's reincarnation so also no man can set reincarnation.

It is obviously a Wish from toys who know that they are not qualified for the new good living to come. Therefore this one of the wish fueled backdoors which they use to soothe their fears.

Most especially as God has already told us that Abel and Cain are still waiting for judgement. Therefore no one has had a repeated living (re-incarnation)

Yes ! There's no any reincarnation either for human or for God

sonmvayina:


We all pray this is our last incarnation...

I was only praying it is his last....

So after our last incarnation, where are we going ? What's going to be our fate ?

Please do you have any logical or scriptural evidence for your reincarnation theory ?

ublight:
Matter can exist as a wave and as a particle. It does not mean that matter changes some times to wave and at other times to particle.


Matter can just exist as wave and as particle at d same time.


Speaking of God changing, he doesn't need to change to take part in the earth. Sela

Why are you comparing a created entity like matter with Uncreated Creator ? They are incomparable !

So do you believe that God can never change to become man ?

MightySparrow:



Brother, be honest. Read through the book of Malachi. If you don't mind can we take it chapter by chapter and thereby draw a conclusion?
God is not talking about a change like ice to water to vapour.
The verse you picked is even only a part. You cannot build a doctrine around it.

Right?

He said in Exodus that 'I Am that I Am'

Be honest stay on the topic.

I still maintain the word honestly

I said I agree with you on Malachi passage. What else do you want ?

Say something about Psalm 102:26-27

Again, do you agree with my second point ? If no, tell me the reason

Finally, bring a biblical evidence to support your view that "I AM THAT I AM" implies that God can change Himself to anything He likes.

MightySparrow:


I don't

You don't agree with what ?

MightySparrow:

The whole of Malachi ha a central theme of: offering,s service, tithes, tear of God and His principles.
Right?
Be honest

Malachi 3:6 says For I am the Lord, I change not ; therefore ye sons of Jacob are not consumed.

God says ; I change not.

But if you think the verse doesn't imply that God cannot change His nature, then let us forget the Malachi passage.

Then what do you have to say regarding Psalm 102:26-27 which says ;

Even they will perish, but You endure;
And all of them will wear out like a garment;
Like clothing You will change them and they will be changed. “But You are the same,
And Your years will not come to an end

Again I am asking you ; bring a biblical evidence to prove that God can change Himself to anything He likes

MightySparrow:
.


I will like you not to deviate from the passage you quoted in Malachi . If you read the preceding verses and those after, do they really support your transformation analysis? Be honest.

I didn't use Malachi 3:6 to support my transformation analysis. I only use the verse to butress the fact that God's nature cannot be changed. Malachi 3:6 has nothing to do with my new analysis I started with you.

So let's proceed ; do you agree with the second point above ?

Again you are yet to bring a biblical evidence to support your assertion that "I AM WHO I AM" implies that God can choose whatever He want to be. You can see that I have given you my own evidence above (Psalm 102:26-27) that God always remain the same without changing.

MightySparrow:


I totally agree with you on the bolded,

Good ! You have agreed that a change usually involve a conversion from initial state to final state. For an illustration, wheat flour is the initial state and the bread is the final state.

Now the second point : do you agree that for something to change, the time required for the existence of its initial state must have been completed or finished before its final state can begin to exist ?

For an illustration, if the wheat flour is the initial state and the bread is the final state, then the time required for the existence of that wheat flour must have been completed or finished before the bread can begin to exist.

Please do you agree ?

MightySparrow:


however,So God has now changed His 'I Am'?

Okay give your own meaning to the name. I humbly want to learn.

God introduced Himself to Moses as I AM WHO I AM (Exodus 3:14). This name of God signifies His eternal nature. That is to say God always was and always will remain the same without changing ;

“Even they will perish, but You endure;
And all of them will wear out like a garment;
Like clothing You will change them and they will be changed. “But You are the same,
And Your years will not come to an end (Psalm 102:26-27)

But if you believe the phrase "I AM WHO I AM" implies God can change Himself to anything He likes, please bring a biblical evidence to support your view.

MightySparrow:


T
You are thinking for God the same way Obidients are thinking for obi. What if God could and/ or had done this before? Have you seen God before? God said 'I am '

I chose whatever I want to be: that is the meaning.

I can see that you are new on this post.
Do you really have interest in knowing the truth or you want to argue blindly like those who completely sealed their minds because of their preconceived notion ?

If you really have interest in knowing the truth, let us start and consider the points one after the other.

First, do you agree that a change usually involve a conversion from initial state to a final state ?

Dtruthspeaker:


Now you are twisting like a Serpent. You saw I said it is blasphemy to defame God and reduce Him to your level most especially when I know where you are heading to which is another blasphemy in the pipes.



We Christians who own the Bible and for whom it is written for verily know what it means and we do not have any dispute about it.

Thus, a plumber may read the medical book and have certain views which appears logical to him but every doctor knows that whatever his views, he is wrong and crazy.

Just as no one goes to a painter for medical advice, so also should anyone listen to you Muslims about the Bible. It is just plain wrong and insanity.

Your views are already automatically invalid and even my scrutiny and query has already shown your invalidity.

Your Muslim thinking and heart can not be used to interpret the Bible.

Thus, as I said, God has a right to do whatever He wants upon His Toys, change or no change, You have no right whatsoever to look into Him. It is very insultive (blasphemy).

There are several logical reasons why God must be immutable, that is, why it is impossible for God to change. First, if anything changes, it must do so in some chronological order. There must be a point in time before the change and a point in time after the change. Therefore, for change to take place it must happen within the constraints of time; however, God is eternal and exists outside of the constraints of time (Psalm 33:11; 41:13).

Second, the immutability of God is necessary for His perfection. If anything changes, it must change for the better or the worse, because a change that makes no difference is not a change. For change to take place, either something that is needed is added, which is a change for the better; or something that is needed is lost, which is a change for the worse. But, since God is perfect, He does not need anything. Therefore, He cannot change for the better. If God were to lose something, He would no longer be perfect; therefore, He cannot change for the worse.

Take it or leave it ; Uncreated Creator can never be a part of His creation

Dtruthspeaker:





Define change in nature? Is it change of property or form or both?

All these is dispensed by the fact that God has a right to alter Himself or maintenance Himself the way He is. Either way, this can not be looked into because He has a right to do whatever pleases Him and no one can question it

And this is where you fully went off course and way out of line for you reduced God to your level which is defamation (blasphemy)

Respect thy Creator and do no wrong is The Law!

Blasphemy to affirm that God cannot change His nature ?

But Bible is clear that God does not change His nature (Malachi 3:6). There are several logical reasons why God must be immutable, that is, why it is impossible for God to change. First, if anything changes, it must do so in some chronological order. There must be a point in time before the change and a point in time after the change. Therefore, for change to take place it must happen within the constraints of time; however, God is eternal and exists outside of the constraints of time (Psalm 33:11; 41:13).

Second, the immutability of God is necessary for His perfection. If anything changes, it must change for the better or the worse, because a change that makes no difference is not a change. For change to take place, either something that is needed is added, which is a change for the better; or something that is needed is lost, which is a change for the worse. But, since God is perfect, He does not need anything. Therefore, He cannot change for the better. If God were to lose something, He would no longer be perfect; therefore, He cannot change for the worse.

Dtruthspeaker:


Can mannequin say what is logically possible for you?

So also can you not say what is impossible for God! You are way out of order.

You can validly talk about yourself and what you have seen and experienced but respect your limits and boundaries.

You are God's toys and toys can never know the full powers of their Creator.

Are you saying God can change Himself to anything He likes ?

If your answer is yes, please read my original post again and kindly tell me which of my points above (1 to 5) that you disagree with ?
Remember I used those points to reach my final conclusion .

Image123:



He does not need to lie. You see sin as an opportunity while God sees it different. It's like me having all the authority to eat my poo and even no one will know, but it is so gross you know.
i did not come here for the OP, you know that na. And he doesn't seem to have issues with what i said, instead he seems to want to help me.

Yes, you get it right ; I wanted to assist you.
But we don't even know who invited him to have a say in this post. Of course we're not discussing whether God exist or not. He is a strong atheist whom I had a debate with long time ago. He was not ready to consider any evidence for God's existence no matter how strong the evidence might be and for that reason I have determined not to have any dialogue with him again. But I didn't forget to tell him that when we meet face to face on the day of resurrection, he will agree me that he has allowed his prejudice to overshadow his faculty of reasoning

Image123:



Hehehehe, lolz. Okay, define omnipotence. Or, who defines omnipotence?

Omnipotence is the ability to do anything that is logically possible to do.

The true concept of omnipotence does not include the power to do something that is logically impossible.

For God to change His own nature or for God to kill Himself is logically impossible !

KnownUnknown:


Just think of the god as a man and the universe as a fish tank. The god recites an incantation to reduce his size similar to what Antman � does. He then jumps into the fish tank universe and does his thing.

But if the entire fish tank (universe) was actually created by His will at first instance, then He did not need to jump into it before doing anything with the fish tank. He can still use the same will (that He used to create the fish tank at first instance) to do anything with the fish tank

The omnipotence of God is over what God has created by His will and this include the world of space and time. That is to say, God is omnipotent i:e all powerful over all what He has created by His will ; not over something that God did not create by His will (like God's own nature). God's own nature need not to be created since His nature has no beginning of existence.

Being an omnipotent, can God just change Himself to become anything He likes ?


1. Essence of God is outside the world of space and time because God has been in existence before the creation of space and time.


2. Hence, for God to become anything else which dwell inside the world of space and time, His nature has to undergo a change ; see the reason below

At first instance, it is the very God's nature that makes God to be living outside the world of space and time as unlimited Being. Therefore, if such God were to be lived inside the world of space and time as limited entity, then that very God's nature must be changed.



3. But God cannot just change His own nature because of the following two reasons ;

(a). God did not create His own nature ; if God's nature was created by His will at first instance, then He can decide to re-create it again and then change it according to His will. But God's nature was never created because His nature need not to be created since His nature has no beginning of existence. Hence, His nature cannot be changed.

(b). It is the very God's nature that makes God to be God. Hence, If God can change His own nature (i:e the nature that makes Him to be God) to something different, then this implies that God can stop Himself from being exist as God. Of course, this is impossible because God must always exist since He is Eternal. So again, His nature cannot be changed.


4. Therefore, if God cannot just change His own nature as logically explained above, then God (who is outside the world of space and time) cannot just change and become anything else that can dwell inside the world of space and time. This is because such a real transformation of God from unlimited Being to a limited entity must definitely involved a change in God's nature as explained in (2) above. Yet His nature cannot be changed as expounded in (3) above


5. In conclusion, if Man (a limited entity) really dwell inside the world of space and time and God ( an unlimited Being) is really outside the world of space and time, then God cannot change to become a Man or anything else apart from His original unlimited Being.

This is why God is Eternal and immutable !.

The omnipotence of God is over what God has created by His will and this include the world of space and time. That is to say, God is omnipotent i:e all powerful over all what He has created by His will ; not over something that God did not create by His will (like God's own nature). God's own nature need not to be created since His nature has no beginning of existence.

Unlike other animals, our special ability to distinguish between good and evil rest on our ability to think consciously with our brain. But if no one carefully design our brain for the purpose of thinking and our thinking is just a by-product of some activities carried out by unconscious and irrational atoms that make up our brain, then how can we be sure that our mode of thinking (and therefore our ability to distinguish between good and evil) is RIGHT or WRONG ?


Therefore, if evil actually exist in this world (as we perceived it), then we can never use it as a basis to disprove the existence of God because our peculiar ability to CONSCIOUSLY, CORRECTLY and OBJECTIVELY distinguish between good and evil at FIRST INSTANCE necessitate the existence of God.

Hence conjunction of "actual evil" and "atheism" is impossible.
In other words, you cannot believe that evil actually exist and at the same time disbelieve in the existence of God.


Therefore, the conclusion is to ask an inquisitive question like "what are the reasons why God allow evil to exist ?" and the conclusion is NEVER to ask a challenging and atheistic question like "if God really exist, then why does evil and suffering exist ?"

The reason(s) why God allows evil to exist may not be fully known to us as human being but we can still use our limited knowledge and wisdom to fathom some of these reasons ;

1. In many events, there is always a rule and exception to the rule. The element of good is more in the creation than the element of evil. We all see that there are more people who are healthy than those who are sick. There are more that eat well then those who starve to death. There are more people who live decent life then those who commit crimes. Therefore, in this present world, goodness is the rule while evil is the exception to the rule.


2. Many things in the world are naturally created in pair ; male and female, light and darkness, day and night, hot and cold, life and death, truth and falsehood, original and fake etc and the existence of one presupposes the existence of the other. So similar case applies to good and evil. Of course, if there is no evil, we would not fully comprehend what is known as good just like if there is no falsehood, we would not fully comprehend what is known as the truth. So good and evil exist as necessary pair of creation just like truth and falsehood (or light and darkness) exist as necessary pair of creation ;

And of everything We have created pairs that you may be mindful (Qur'an 51:49)


3. This world is deliberately created to be a temporary life of trial and imperfection and therefore expected to be a mixture of good and evil ;

"Everyone is going to taste death, and We shall make a trial of you with evil and with good, and to Us you will be returned (Qur'an 21:35)".

This is in contrast to permanent and perfect life in the hereafter where all goodness and enjoyments would be kept absolutely in the Paradise and all evil and suffering would be restricted completely to the Hell fire ;

Everyone shall taste death. And only on the Day of Resurrection shall you be paid your wages in full. And whoever is removed away from the Fire and admitted to Paradise, he indeed is successful. The life of this world is only an enjoyment of deception (Qur'an 3:185).

In summary, it is the ultimate will of God Almighty for good and evil to mix together in this temporary life of trial as opposed to the next life of eternity where good and evil would be completely and permanently dissociated from each other.
Therefore, a century of struggling and suffering in this temporary life would be insignificant compared to an eternity in Paradise—a place free of all forms of evil and suffering . In the authentic prophetic report, this very issue is addressed ;

…Then the most miserable people in the world from the people of Paradise will come on the Day of Resurrection to be dipped into Paradise, then it will be said: O son of Adam, did you see any hardship? Did you experience any distress? He will say: No, by Allah, my Lord! I did not once see any hardship, I did not once experience any distress.


4. Natural evils (like inferno, earthquake and tsunami) sometimes exist as a kind of reminder of the greater evils awaiting the sinners in the hereafter ;

"And verily, We will make them taste the near torment (i.e. the torment in the life of this world, i.e. disasters, calamities, etc.) prior to the supreme torment (in the Hereafter), in order that they may repent and return (Qur'an 32:21).

That is to say, if God Almighty can even make the innocent souls to suffer in this temporary life, then how can He allow the sinners to scot-free in the permanent life to come ?


5. Moral evils (like adultery, theft, raping and murder) exist to allow human beings to exercise their God-given "FREE-WILL" which made it possible for them to either obey or disobey God as opposed to Angels who are naturally created to always obey God (Qur'an 66:6).



6. Natural evils are sometimes direct consequence of moral evils committed by human beings just like God Almighty declared in the Qur'an as follows;

"Evil has appeared on land and sea because of what the hands of men have earned, that Allah may make them taste a part of that which they have done, in order that they may return by repentance ( Qur'an 30:41)"


7. What humans perceive as evil may be actually good in light of God’s Wisdom ;

"it may be that you dislike a thing which is good for you and that you like a thing which is evil for you. God knows but you do not know (Qur'an 2:216).

For example, consider the story narrated in the Qur'an where Khidr's act of scuttling the ship of a poor people with a axe later turns to be a good act because there was a king ahead who always seized every good ship from its owner by force (Qur'an 18:69-82)

The problem of the macroevolution of animal form is unsolved because neo-Darwinian theory has not incorporated the logic of development into its models (Transformation rules, T1 and T3 in Lewontin’s 1974 schema).

Crick challenged me with the statement that nothing can be said about evolution until we understand how organisms are put together. Why do we need to know, as Crick said, “how organisms are put together” to understand evolution ? If we think of A and B as representing animal taxa, their differences in form would constitute a macroevolutionary transformation. But these are the adult forms. They are constructed by developmental pathways, and it is those pathways which evolution must modify. Thus, Crick’s challenge to Dover – i.e., that Dover needed to know “how organisms are put together” – means that animal evolution lies analytically downstream of understanding the details of animal development. Putting development into a black box, as neoDarwinism did, puts evolution in there as well: not understood

Lukuluku69:


Brother,

Of course I know him and his ways. I agree with you that it is better ignore but sometime a word or two to correct a wrong notion or a basic grasp that which troubles their soul for the kind of hatred they have within them is why I sometimes reply their mentions.

Going forward, I think I will just ignore.

Shukran!

Please stop arguing with TenQ for the sake of Allah. Let all of us wait till the day of Judgement and see who is right and who is wrong in his belief