Ohyoudidnt:


The verse doesn't say spirit but soul and I put it to you that there is no difference between the two. You claim otherwise but cannot prove it.

So according to the bible soul and spirit is the same? Is that what U saying ?

Hebrew 4.2
For the word of God is active and living, sharper than any 2 edged sword, piercing to the division of soul and of spirit.....

1 Thessalonians 5.23
And the very God of peace sanctify you through. May your whole spirit, soul and body be kept blameless at the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.

AntiChristian:

Was Jesus also educated like Paul and Luke? Show me sir, i want to learn! My children speak English and Arabic because they attend such schools that teaches it.

What did the Bible say Paul knew that Jesus don't know?
Paul only nationalized as a Roman citizen just as many elites are doing today but when talking about the lingua franca of the time all Jews teach their children what they supposed to know.
After their return from Babylon most Jewish children can't speak Hebrew anymore that's why the later part of the Old Testament was written in Aramaic (the language of Babylonians) ever since then the Hebrew language is no longer strong in the mouth of Jewish returnees instead they began learning the language of any nation that's ruling like Greece but the elderly ones among them still keep their mother tongue.
Note what you quoted earlier "Eli Eli" even the Jews standing their don't understand what he was saying! Matthew 27:46-49
So don't think the Hebrew language is what all those people speaks back then.

Ohyoudidnt:


Even the Bible talks of Jesus being troubled in spirit and soul in different verses without clearly differentiating between them. John 12:27 and John 13:21

Does your Bible clearly tell you the Angels incarnated as man before procreating with women? This seems to be your exclusive explanation from the limited Bible of sirtee15. Where can I get a copy?

ok since u want to be nicky picky. Prove to me that verse was talking about fallen angels in the first place. The verse mentioned sons of God having relations with daughters. where is your evidence of fallen angels in the verse.

Genesis 6.1
When human beings began to increase in number on the earth and daughters were born to them, 2 the sons of God saw that the daughters of humans were beautiful, and they married any of them they chose.


because according to Jesus, angels and humans cant have sexual relationship.
Matthew 22.30
At the resurrection people will neither marry nor be given in marriage; they will be like the angels in heaven.

That's why I kept asking you and AntiChristian if the the act in Genesis 6 was on earth or in heaven. Both of u failed to give an answer.

SIRTee15:


ok since u want to be nicky picky. Prove to me that verse was talking about fallen angels in the first place. The verse mentioned sons of God having relations with daughters. where is your evidence of fallen angels in the verse.

Genesis 6.1
When human beings began to increase in number on the earth and daughters were born to them, 2 the sons of God saw that the daughters of humans were beautiful, and they married any of them they chose.

because according to Jesus, angels and humans cant have sexual relationship.
Matthew 22.30
At the resurrection people will neither marry nor be given in marriage; they will be like the angels in heaven.

That's why I kept asking you and AntiChristian if the the act in Genesis 6 was on earth or in heaven. Both of u failed to give an answer.

The fact that Angels (aka sons of God) who are spiritual beings could have sex cell and impregnate humans means all spiritual beings including God all have sex cell embedded in their anatomy according to the Bible!

MaxInDHouse:

What did the Bible say Paul knew that Jesus don't know?
Paul only nationalized as a Roman citizen just as many elites are doing today but when talking about the lingua franca of the time all Jews teach their children what they supposed to know.
After their return from Babylon most Jewish children can't speak Hebrew anymore that's why the later part of the Old Testament was written in Aramaic (the language of Babylonians) ever since then the Hebrew language is no longer strong in the mouth of Jewish returnees instead they began learning the language of any nation that's ruling like Greece but the elderly ones among them still keep their mother tongue.
Note what you quoted earlier "Eli Eli" even the Jews standing their don't understand what he was saying! Matthew 27:46-49
So don't think the Hebrew language is what all those people speaks back then.

It was Aramaic! Jesus spoke Aramaic. And there's no proof he understood Greek anywhere!

SIRTee15:


ok since u want to be nicky picky. Prove to me that verse was talking about fallen angels in the first place. The verse mentioned sons of God having relations with daughters. where is your evidence of fallen angels in the verse.

Genesis 6.1
When human beings began to increase in number on the earth and daughters were born to them, 2 the sons of God saw that the daughters of humans were beautiful, and they married any of them they chose.


because according to Jesus, angels and humans cant have sexual relationship.
Matthew 22.30
At the resurrection people will neither marry nor be given in marriage; they will be like the angels in heaven.

That's why I kept asking you and AntiChristian if the the act in Genesis 6 was on earth or in heaven. Both of u failed to give an answer.

Genesis 6:2 can be understood in two main ways:

Sons of Seth: This interpretation suggests that the godly descendants of Seth married women who were not godly.
Fallen Angels: This view posits that spiritual beings interacted with human women.
Each interpretation has its strengths and weaknesses, but a significant number of scholars tend to favor the latter, as it has been more commonly accepted in Jewish and early Christian traditions.

Job 1:6 states, “Now there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the LORD, and Satan came also among them.”

Now tell is Satan regarded as a fallen angel in Christian or not?

When you consider the apparent contradiction between Matthew 22:30 and Genesis 6 you should note that though the former suggests angels do not engage in marriage or reproduction in their heavenly existence, fallen angels might have assumed physical forms or acted contrary to their divine nature when interacting with humans. Hence the ability to propagate with women. This implies a specific situation where these beings could transcend their inherent characteristics.

SIRTee15:


So according to the bible soul and spirit is the same? Is that what U saying ?

Hebrew 4.2
For the word of God is active and living, sharper than any 2 edged sword, piercing to the division of soul and of spirit.....

1 Thessalonians 5.23
And the very God of peace sanctify you through. May your whole spirit, soul and body be kept blameless at the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.

Hebrews 4:2 and 1 Thessalonians 5:23 present some description or understanding of human nature from a biblical viewpoint, yet they do not clearly differentiate between the soul and spirit. Instead, they emphasize various facets of human experience like faith in connection with divine revelation in Hebrews, and the comprehensive sanctification of spirit, soul, and body in Thessalonians without providing specific definitions or distinctions.

I will like you to give clear Biblical or God inspired distinction of the two.

GothamCities:

Read the Bible from Genesis to Revelation and you'll immediately notice the pattern. I gave you a scripture verse yesterday. Look into it too.

See these Scriptures too:

When God wanted to heal, what did He do?

"He sent His word and healed them, and delivered them from their destruction." - Psalm 107:20

He sent His Word.

God sends His Word on errands:

"So shall My Word be that goes forth from My mouth; It shall not return to Me void, But it shall accomplish what I please, And it shall prosper in the thing for which I sent it."

So when God speaks Jesus is what comes out as God's speech? In the Bible does the word of God have a separate sit at the right hand of the father?

Wrong question. Where did God specifically mention Himself as a Being? That's the first question. God never mentioned Himself as being a Being, did He? We know because of what He does. He behaves like a Being. The Word behaves like a Being too. The Spirit behaves like Being. God has never said "Hey, I'm a Being." Or "hey, My Word is a Being." The same way your father never told you he's a being. You know he's a being by your interactions with him. I know the Word is a Being by my interactions with the Word.

In Christendom. We don't go by letters but by Revelation. Your eyes need to be open to see what ordinary men cannot see in the Scriptures. Revelation is the real food of the spirit. Not mere letters which you wrestle with on a daily basis. Infact, the Word itself has nothing to offer man. It's Revelation that flourishes the spirit and the soul of man, and also heals his body. If the Word is not revealed to you, you can never see anything. You'll only come online all day to create threads that will never profit your soul.

But you see, by the time we got to John, 1, we have a declaration that the Word was covered with flesh and dwelt among men. Then, in the book of Revelation, John himself saw the Word:

Revelation 19:12-13

"His eyes are like a flame of fire, and on his head are many diadems, and he has a name written that no one knows but himself. He is clothed in a robe dipped in blood, and the name by which he is called is The Word of God."

In one part you said he's not a being! then later you stated him having eyes, head, etc typical of a being! Anyways! All these you need revelation to understand the Bible is untrue! Otherwise there won't be many written commentaries and exegesis of the Bible. Everyone would just be waiting for Holy Spirit! Moreso, Holy Spirit wasn't involved in the writing of the Bible, nor in its compilation! The writers were writing independently and each books existed on its own till some church fathers agreed to make it what it is today!

You still don't get it. Once God conceives an action in His mind, the Word goes forth to make it happen. It's not that God thinks, then speaks, then the word starts doing. No.

See it this way: if your children understand your body language, they'll know exactly what you want done and go do it.

It's in the Father's mind which is the same as the Son's {The Word} mind, the Word just goes forth and does it. When the Word is doing it, that's the Father speaking. When the Holy Ghost is manifesting it, that's the Father at work.

It is conceived now not spoken? Alright!

So tell me what happened to the father before Jesus died based on John 5:19?

SIRTee15:


One and the same in what? U have debated Christians long enough.
U should do better than this...

Unusual that you don't understand me.

The idea that the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are coequal is a cornerstone of Christian theology, especially in the context of the Trinity.

The Athanasian Creed, dating back to around A.D. 325, clearly expresses the doctrine of the Trinity. It states:
“We worship one God in Trinity, and Trinity in Unity; neither confounding the Person: nor divided in Substance.”

Now there are questions from the son doing what he sees the father doing to the holy spirit being the messanger of one or both and not seen sending the other components of the trinity?

AntiChristian:
It was Aramaic! Jesus spoke Aramaic. And there's no proof he understood Greek anywhere!

NO!
"Eli Eli" isn't Aramaic nah it's Hebrew.

What i want you to know is that Jesus spoke in Hebrew but that doesn't mean he couldn't speak the lingua franca of his time which is Greek because even most Jews of his day don't fully understand the Hebrew language rather it's Greek they can speak fluently just as most children today can't speak their parents language like English because that's the norm.

AntiChristian:
It was Aramaic! Jesus spoke Aramaic. And there's no proof he understood Greek anywhere!

Why classifying Jesus as a Muslim if he doesn't understand Arabic but only Aramaic

MaxInDHouse:

NO!
"Eli Eli" isn't Aramaic nah it's Hebrew.

What i want you to know is that Jesus spoke in Hebrew but that doesn't mean he couldn't speak the lingua franca of his time which is Greek because even most Jews of his day don't fully understand the Hebrew language rather it's Greek they can speak fluently just as most children today can't speak their parents language like English because that's the norm.

No sir! Jesus as well as the disciples spoke Aramaic as their first language! Abba, Talitha kum, Ephphata, Raca and Eli Eli lama sabachthani are all in Aramaic.

IslamVIRGINS:


Why classifying Jesus as a Muslim if he doesn't understand Arabic but only Aramaic

Why Classify Jesus as a Jew if he doesn't understand Hebrew?

AntiChristian:
So when God speaks Jesus is what comes out as God's speech? In the Bible does the word of God have a separate sit at the right hand of the father?

When you see Jesus action. That's God speaking. Whatever Jesus does is the Word of God at that moment.

In one part you said he's not a being! then later you stated him having eyes, head, etc typical of a being! Anyways! All these you need revelation to understand the Bible is untrue! Otherwise there won't be many written commentaries and exegesis of the Bible. Everyone would just be waiting for Holy Spirit! Moreso, Holy Spirit wasn't involved in the writing of the Bible, nor in its compilation! The writers were writing independently and each books existed on its own till some church fathers agreed to make it what it is today!

Can you show me where I said He's not a Being? Didn't I tell you that your own word is not a being but God's Word is a Being? Do you read to forget to easily?

It is conceived now not spoken? Alright!

Didn't I tell you that Jesus is Himself the spoken Word of God? You don't look for any other Word of God apart from Jesus. When you see Jesus in action, that's God speaking out what He had conceived in His mind. This is very simple now. Why is it difficult for you to comprehend?

So tell me what happened to the father before Jesus died based on John 5:19?

Read my previous responses for your answer.

GothamCities:

When you see Jesus action. That's God speaking. Whatever Jesus does is the Word of God at that moment.

For example, When Jesus wept! The Father must have conceived weeping and spoken it right?

Can you show me where I said He's not a Being? Didn't I tell you that your own word is not a being but God's Word is a Being? Do you read to forget to easily?

Okay you said God behaves like a being. Angels too behave like beings!

Didn't I tell you that Jesus is Himself the spoken Word of God? You don't look for any other Word of God apart from Jesus. When you see Jesus in action, that's God speaking out what He had conceived in His mind. This is very simple now. Why is it difficult for you to comprehend?

Of course it hard to believe that when God spoke to Adam, Noah, Moses, etc Jesus was the word coming out as speech!

Read my previous responses for your answer.

Before Jesus died the father would have conceived death and spoken it so Jesus will just carry it out! But the verse below says Jesus sees his father doing it. it never mentions the father conceiving and speaking it for Jesus to carry it out! Jesus actually saw the father doing it.

So Jesus replied, “Truly, truly, I tell you, the Son can do NOTHING by Himself, unless He sees the Father doing it. For WHATEVER the Father does, the Son also does. John 5:18-19!

AntiChristian:
For example, When Jesus wept! The Father must have conceived weeping and spoken it right?

If that's the level of your understanding.

Okay you said God behaves like a being. Angels too behave like beings!

Show me where I said that. Do you know what you're reading at all?

b]Of course it hard to believe that when God spoke to Adam, Noah, Moses, etc Jesus was the word coming out as speech![/b]

Jesus is the Word of God.

Before Jesus died the father would have conceived death and spoken it so Jesus will just carry it out! But the verse below says Jesus sees his father doing it. it never mentions the father conceiving and speaking it for Jesus to carry it out! Jesus actually saw the father doing it.

You still don't understand such a simple statement as "Whenever you see Jesus in action, that's God speaking."? Find time to grasp this first.

So Jesus replied, “Truly, truly, I tell you, the Son can do NOTHING by Himself, unless He sees the Father doing it. For WHATEVER the Father does, the Son also does. John 5:18-19!

Whenever you see Jesus in action, that's the God speaking.

GothamCities:

If that's the level of your understanding.


Show me where I said that. Do you know what you're reading at all?


Jesus is the Word of God.


You still don't understand such a simple statement as "Whenever you see Jesus in action, that's God speaking."? Find time to grasp this first.



Whenever you see Jesus in action, that's the God speaking.

You are just confusing and muddling things up here and there! I guess anyone following this thread will see the same thing! How does Jesus seeing the father and copying what he sees corresponds to the father speaking?

1. Jesus sees the father doing something and he copies it. That's simple John 5:19!
2. Your own theory is Jesus does an action that's God speaking!

God spoke to many people and Jesus didn't come out as his word!

AntiChristian:


You are just confusing and muddling things up here and there! I guess anyone following this thread will see the same thing! How does Jesus seeing the father and copying what he sees corresponds to the father speaking?

1. Jesus sees the father doing something and he copies it. That's simple John 5:19!
2. Your own theory is Jesus does an action that's God speaking!

Can you show me where Jesus said He copies the Father?

Jesus is Himself the Word of God. Does your word copy what is on your mind?

What's confusing you in all these?

God spoke to many people and Jesus didn't come out as his word!

The Word that comes out of God's mouth is Jesus Himself before it was clothed with fresh.

GothamCities:

Can you show me where Jesus said He copies the Father?

Jesus is Himself the Word of God. Does your word copy what is on your mind?

What's confusing you in all these?

So Jesus replied, “Truly, truly, I tell you, the Son can do NOTHING by Himself, unless He sees the Father doing it. For WHATEVER the Father does, the Son also does. John 5:19! Emphasis on the capitalized words! What the texts says is contradictory to your theory! Jesus sees the father doing something before he does it. This is a simple copy cat case!

The Word that comes out of God's mouth is Jesus Himself before it was clothed with fresh.

So the word God has been speaking from the time of Adam was clothed with flesh to make Jesus? But God was still speaking when Jesus was on earth! God said this is my beloved son in who I'm well pleased! It's like God's word could have produced more than one Jesuses at that time! More confusion!

SIRTee15:


So according to the bible soul and spirit is the same? Is that what U saying ?

Hebrew 4.2
For the word of God is active and living, sharper than any 2 edged sword, piercing to the division of soul and of spirit.....

1 Thessalonians 5.23
And the very God of peace sanctify you through. May your whole spirit, soul and body be kept blameless at the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.

Even this verse you quoted shows they are the same! Check the translations from Greek! Attached!

AntiChristian:
So Jesus replied, “Truly, truly, I tell you, the Son can do NOTHING by Himself, unless He sees the Father doing it. For WHATEVER the Father does, the Son also does. John 5:19! Emphasis on the capitalized words! What the texts says is contradictory to your theory! Jesus sees the father doing something before he does it. This is a simple copy cat case!

The copy is the same as the one between your mind and your words. Don't you know that the statement is also applicable to simultaneous actions?

So the word God has been speaking from the time of Adam was clothed with flesh to make Jesus? But God was still speaking when Jesus was on earth! God said this is my beloved son in who I'm well pleased! It's like God's word could have produced more than one Jesuses at that time! More confusion!

Jesus is the Word of God. The fact that the Word was clothed in flesh does not mean the Word of God has ceased.

The Word is a Spirit. You need Revelation to know God my dear. Your human logic is failing you.

AntiChristian:


The fact that Angels (aka sons of God) who are spiritual beings could have sex cell and impregnate humans means all spiritual beings including God all have sex cell embedded in their anatomy according to the Bible!

So U agree the fallen angels in Genesis 6 incarnated. Which means they acquired real human nature.
Whatever the fallen angels did was done in flesh.
So what is the issue all about.
Jesus died because he incarnated and had real human nature.
Did the Father ever incarnate? If he ever incarnate, how can he have human attributes?
That's the question I've been asking U and U just doing whataboutism up and down talking about fallen angels.

U can see why your argument makes no sense.
Now we back to square one. Did the father ever had a real human nature.

AntiChristian:

No sir! Jesus as well as the disciples spoke Aramaic as their first language! Abba, Talitha kum, Ephphata, Raca and Eli Eli lama sabachthani are all in Aramaic.

So all these are in Aramaic shey?
Well Jesus learned the lingua franca of his time just as children of nowadays learned English so he spoke both his mother's tongue and the foreign language used around the Mediterranean Sea!

AntiChristian:


Why Classify Jesus as a Jew if he doesn't understand Hebrew?

Jews are considered Hebrew, but not all Hebrews are considered Jewish. You have been deceived totally on the issue that Jesus is a Muslim when he never spoken Arabic!

SIRTee15:

So U agree the fallen angels in Genesis 6 incarnated. Which means they acquired real human nature.
Whatever the fallen angels did was done in flesh.
So what is the issue all about.
Jesus died because he incarnated and had real human nature.
Did the Father ever incarnate? If he ever incarnate, how can he have human attributes?
That's the question I've been asking U and U just doing whataboutism up and down talking about fallen angels.

U can see why your argument makes no sense.
Now we back to square one. Did the father ever had a real human nature.

But I asked you how the father drank Adeboye's tea and you became mute running away from this question! Do spirits drink tea?

Your Bible says God is not a man, but same Bible says sons of God became man! If the sons can become man and fulfil all the characteristics of living things what stops the father from doing same?

The biblical God doesn't need human nature to birth Jesus or to drink Adeboye's tea!

AntiChristian:


Even this verse you quoted shows they are the same! Check the translations from Greek! Attached!

spirit is always called pneumatos and soul is always called psucho in the NT, they are never interchanged.
The same in OT. soul is called nephesh and spirit is called ruach and are not interchanged.

In the bible nephesh/soul/psucho denotes breathe and ruach/pneumatos/spirit denotes wind. That's the context of their usage in the bible.

MAN IS MADE IN THE IMAGE OF GOD- SPIRIT, AND THEN BREATHE INTO HIM- SOUL.

The Wind (Ruach/spirit) of El has made me, and the breath of the Almighty gives me life. (Job 33:4)

MaxInDHouse:


So all these are in Aramaic shey?
Well Jesus learned the lingua franca of his time just as children of nowadays learned English so he spoke both his mother's tongue and the foreign language used around the Mediterranean Sea!

How was he educated to learn the Lingua Franca? Who were his tutors? Usually it's only educated people who achieved this feat!

His main language was Aramaic!

IslamVIRGINS:


Jews are considered Hebrew, but not all Hebrews are considered Jewish. You have been deceived totally on the issue that Jesus is a Muslim when he never spoken Arabic!

There are are Arab Christians as well as Jewish Muslims! You are the one in delusion.

And Abraham, Noah, Moses and other didn't speak Arabic and are Muslims!

SIRTee15:


spirit is always called pneumatos and soul is always called psucho in the NT, they are never interchanged.
The same in OT. soul is called nephesh and spirit is called ruach and are not interchanged.

In the bible nephesh/soul/psucho denotes breathe and ruach/pneumatos/spirit denotes wind. That's the context of their usage in the bible.

MAN IS MADE IN THE IMAGE OF GOD- SPIRIT, AND THEN BREATHE INTO HIM- SOUL.

The Wind (Ruach/spirit) of El has made me, and the breath of the Almighty gives me life. (Job 33:4)

Don't be mischievous! They both have a second and third meanings! Can you state the other meanings?

Ohyoudidnt:


Unusual that you don't understand me.

The idea that the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are coequal is a cornerstone of Christian theology, especially in the context of the Trinity.

The Athanasian Creed, dating back to around A.D. 325, clearly expresses the doctrine of the Trinity. It states:
“We worship one God in Trinity, and Trinity in Unity; neither confounding the Person: nor divided in Substance.”

Now there are questions from the son doing what he sees the father doing to the holy spirit being the messanger of one or both and not seen sending the other components of the trinity?

Athanasian creed wasn't written in 325 AD, you confusing it with Nicene creed. The creed was likely written in the 6th century.

If your definition of Trinity is based on what's written 600 years after the bible was written, then I dont think u understand trinity really much.
Maybe we should start from the basic.

Do u have an understand of how the word GOD is used in the bible. n.b

AntiChristian:


Don't be mischievous! They both have a second and third meanings! Can you state the other meanings?

words have multiple meaning my friend. Men are called Elohim in the bible, The devil is called god in the bible. does that mean those passages are talking about the Almighty God?
context is key, dont hide behind one finger. use your brain.
show me in the bible where spirit is used for breath/nephesh or soul is used for wind/ruach. Otherwise shut up.

AntiChristian:


There are are Arab Christians as well as Jewish Muslims! You are the one in delusion.

And Abraham, Noah, Moses and other didn't speak Arabic and are Muslims!

Nothing like Arab Christians in the days of Jesus, Abraham, Noah, Moses, etc you mentioned above. They are not Muslims you classified them to be, they don't speak Arabic, they don't practice Islam and above all, Muhammad the founder of islam and the first Muslim came 600yr after the ascension of Jesus to heaven. Stop dinning and winning in delusion boy!