Was Jesus being rude to Mary when He referred to her as "woman"? Why didn't Jesus show more respect to His mother in John 2:4?

Who says jesus did?..the bible or the lying humans who wrote it?

Why didn't Jesus show more respect to His mother in John 2:4?

OLAADEGBU:
Was Jesus being rude to Mary when He referred to her as "woman"? Why didn't Jesus show more respect to His mother in John 2:4?

Cultural and personal perception of rudeness differs.

Is Mary a man? Is she not a 'woman'?

esere826:


Cultural and personal perception of rudeness differs.

You have not answered the question, sir.

OLAADEGBU:


You have not answered the question, sir.

Yes I did.
Let me try again..
If Jesus and the woman were westerners living today in a western society, then Jesus was indeed rude.
In some Nigerian cultures, that would also be rude, while in some this would be acceptable and even considered endearing depending on the age of Jesus

So, except you fully understand the Jewish culture of that time, and the relationship between Jesus and his mum, you really can't say it is so and so.

...always remember this: context is everything

OLAADEGBU:
Was Jesus being rude to Mary when He referred to her as "woman"?

Jesus was not being rude to Mary,
that is the mistake, we all make in interpreting and understanding bible passages such as this
Many of us want to understand or digest bible passages
but when we have issues with how to slice and eat it correctly,
then problems with understanding it correctly presents itself

esere826:
Cultural and personal perception of rudeness differs

The situation/circumstances has nothing to do with lack of manners or being discourteous

OLAADEGBU:
You have not answered the question, sir.

esere826:
Yes I did.
Let me try again..
If Jesus and the woman were westerners living today in a western society, then Jesus was indeed rude.

No, some people in the West, say ''this is my woman etcetera....'' and it is deemed endearing and not rude

esere826:
In some Nigerian cultures, that would also be rude, while in some this would be acceptable
and even considered endearing depending on the age of Jesus

Fela will remind you about the African woman, that:
''If you call am woman, African woman no go 'gree
She go say, she go say, "I be Lady o"

[Chorus]
She go say, "I be Lady o"! She go say, "I be Lady"!
She go say, "I no be woman"
She go say, "Market woman, na woman"
She go say, "I be Lady" etcetera

esere826:
So, except you fully understand the Jewish culture of that time,
and the relationship between Jesus and his mum, you really can't say it is so and so.

...always remember this: context is everything

Has nothing to do with Jewish culture,

This is a remark made out of a somewhat intuitive knowledge
and the context is around Eden, Genesis 3:6, Genesis 3:12 and particularly Genesis 3:15

OLAADEGBU:
Why didn't Jesus show more respect to His mother in John 2:4?

It has nothing to do with not showing more respect or disrespect.

Jesus has observed a re-enactment happening again before his eyes, hence the ''woman'' statement
- here recreating aspects of a historical event was happening again
e.g. the ''woman'' in Eden telling Adam what to do, and again the ''woman'' telling another Adam what to do
The ''woman'' involving Adam, at the wrong time (i.e. "the man's hour has not yet come.'')
and the ''woman'' here again involving the other Adam (i.e. "Woman, why do you involve me?" Jesus replied. "My hour has not yet come'')

It is the manifested ''woman'' in Mary, his mother, which is the same ''woman'' in Eve, that Jesus was addressing
- it isnt an inappropriate remark to make, when Jesus called Mary, His mother, woman

Mary, His mother, is the prophetic ''woman''
or the other ''Eve'' of the Genesis 3:6, Genesis 3:12 and particulary Genesis 3:15 account

And I will put enmity between thee and the woman,
and between thy seed and her seed;
it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel
- Genesis 3:15

esere826:


Yes I did.
Let me try again..
If Jesus and the woman were westerners living today in a western society, then Jesus was indeed rude.
In some Nigerian cultures, that would also be rude, while in some this would be acceptable and even considered endearing depending on the age of Jesus

So, except you fully understand the Jewish culture of that time, and the relationship between Jesus and his mum, you really can't say it is so and so.

...always remember this: context is everything

Was Jesus speaking from the perspective of His divinity or from His humanity?

OLAADEGBU:


Was Jesus being rude to Mary when He referred to her as "woman"? Why didn't Jesus show more respect to His mother in John 2:4?

Suggested answer:

In John 2, Mary, Jesus, and some of the disciples are attending a wedding. In John 2:3, Mary tells Jesus that the host has run out of wine. Mary obviously wants Jesus to do something special to fix the situation; He had performed no miracles up to this point (John 2:11), and Mary undoubtedly thought it was time He showed who He was. Jesus' response, read in modern English, strikes some people as abrupt, even impolite or rude. He responds, "Woman, what does this have to do with me? My hour has not yet come" (ESV). It's Jesus' addressing His mother as "Woman" that seems most rude to us.

One of the problems with translating from one language to another is that certain phrases have meanings not easily transferred. Phrases that don't mean exactly what they say are often called "idioms," and they can cause confusion in translation. For example, exclamations such as "heads up!" or "look out!" actually mean the opposite of their literal words—if someone yells, "Heads up!" we usually duck our heads. A native English speaker understands such idioms instinctively, but in order to translate them, we'd have to pick words that aren't synonyms—heads up! might translate into words that mean "get down!"—or end up with a confusing phrase.

What Jesus says to His mother in John 2:4 sounds almost rude in English. However, in the original language, and in that culture, Mary would not have interpreted Jesus' words that way. The term woman was used like we use the term ma'am. By addressing Mary this way, Jesus does distance Himself from His mother somewhat—He was exerting His independence from her wishes—but in no way was it a rude manner of speaking. Jesus lovingly uses the same word from the cross when He tells Mary that He is entrusting her to John's care (John 19:26).

The question Jesus asks His mother isn't rude, either. It may sound rude in the KJV: "What have I to do with thee?" (John 2:4), but it was a common idiom. In the Greek, Jesus' question is "Ti emoi kai soi?" The phrase was used to ask of the connection between two people. The question could be translated as "What business do we have with each other?" Or, in less formal terms, "What does this have to do with me?" (ESV) or "Why do you involve me?" (NIV). Again, Jesus is expressing the fact that He is independent of His mother; as eager as Mary was to see Jesus do a miracle, she had no right to determine the time or the manner in which Jesus publicly revealed His glory. Jesus makes His point gently and without being rude, however.

Jesus concludes His statement to Mary with, "My hour has not yet come." The reference to His "hour" or "time" (NET) means that Jesus was constantly working from a divine timetable. So, He wasn't going to reveal His power sooner than God the Father intended (see John 5:30). One of the points Jesus made in His temptation in the desert was that there is such a thing as doing the right thing for the wrong reasons (Matthew 4:1–10). That is, it would be wrong to perform a miracle if the time and place are not according to God's will.

Jesus did act, performing His first miracle. He turned the water into wine, but He did so in a very subtle, subdued way. Only the servants, Mary, and a few disciples even knew what He had done. The miracle was to introduce the disciples to His ability, not to show off or to go public with His power (see John 2:11).

So, Jesus isn't being rude or dismissive in John 2:4. He's politely pointing out that He follows God's timing, not Mary's; and that this is not His moment to be publicly revealed. Some of the respectful tone is lost in translation, perhaps, but Jesus was not being rude.

http://www.gotquestions.org/Jesus-Mary-woman.html