JMAN05:


It is out of the way because the law is out of the way, if not, you can't say you are a worshiper of God without being circumcised. Even Jesus himself, Paul and john underwent circumcision.

It was so important that you can be circumcised on a Sabbath day.

Paul said what he did because he knew the law was out of the way.

If you transgress one part of the law, you erred in all. Have that in mind.

This is your personal opinion not Bible.
and it does not count.

JMAN05:


Let's assume he is not allowed to commit that specific offence. The point is, he has now been adopted by another nation with a different law. The new nation's laws could have similarity with the old. But there will always be difference.

The law of Christ is not just against murder, but helps us never to hate our fellow even in our hearts. It does not condone the actions condemned by the law. But helps you be a man of principle cos conditions vary.

Notice what Paul counselled against in 1cor 6:9,10.

More personal talks than facts.
Which one is the law of Christ?

You shoot yourself on the foot, how can the law be abolished when Jesus raised the bar of the law?

Fornication is not only when one sleeps with a woman but by lusting looking at a woman is Sin

Killing is not when we use gun to shoot people but when we have unwarranted anger towards others it is also seen as murder by God.

Does this look like a law that was changed or abolished?

JMAN05:


I did say to you that Jesus did observe the law. The law was out of the way after his death. Of course, he pointed out the principles in the law while alive cos this will replace the strict law observance.

Notice in that Matthew 5, that Jesus did not isolate the ten commandments as the commandments he mentioned in verse 19.

See verses 23,24 still encouraged animal sacrifice. Verses 33, 38 is also not among the ten. These are among the commandments Jesus mentioned in verse 19.

I have said before, if you take only the ten commandment, you are rejecting the most important commandments which are: love God with all your heart, soul and strength, and loving your neighbor as yourself. (Deut 6:5; Lev 19:18) these are not part of the ten. So all the commands, including the ten commandments emanated from these two. Yet these two is not part of the ten.

I give advise: when considering the law, consider it as a whole. Do not detatch some from the rest. The law is a body of rules. They are together.

What are the principles of the law, can you mention them?

You are confusing yourself the 10commandments are not different from the 2commandments to love God and ones neighbor.
Matthew 22:39-40
And the second is like it: ‘Love your neighbor as yourself.’
40 All the Law and the Prophets hang on these two
commandments.”

Where is it written that we should consider the law as a whole?
When God appeared in mount Sinai how many laws did he give the Israelites?

You are cutting and placing Bible verses to fit your preconceived beliefs.

JMAN05:


That was an effort by you I must say. However, it will be a stretch to state that the ten commandments has been before the law came. The law came along thru covenant that God established with the Jews. Blood was involved in it. So, you can't compare that to what God said prior to the law's establishment.

So, there's a difference. The thing is, God has always had standards of right and wrong even before the law came on board.

Dreamer.

If the law was came when God made convanent with the Jews.
Which law did Abraham obey?


◄ Genesis 26:5
Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge,
my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.

JMAN05:


I didn't discuss priesthood and Hebrews on this post.

I see no reason to accept that you pick ten commandments and leave the other. You are already sinning against the law. Rom 7 helps us see that detaching the ten commandments from the rest is wrong. It is part of the law.

We have discussed this.

Apart from the 10commandments which other law did God write with his finger?

JMAN05:


So the point is?

It was the law regarding priesthood that was changed and not the 10commandments which you claim.

JMAN05:


I don't see reasons to divide the law into three parts, thereby pointing out the one that is out of the way, the one that is followed by principle and the one that is fixed.

We have discussed that.

Am not the one that divided it, God did.

blueAgent:



Am not the one that divided it, God did.

God divided it into ceremonial, civil and moral. Can I see the reference?

blueAgent:


Apart from the 10commandments which other law did God write with his finger?

What do u understand by God's finger?

blueAgent:



Dreamer.

If the law was came when God made convanent with the Jews.
Which law did Abraham obey?


◄ Genesis 26:5
Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge,
my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.

There is something am trying to understand from your response. Pls can I know: do you think that the ten commandments has been there before Moses brought it from the mountain?

Do you apply all mention of law to be the ten commandment?

Let me know.

blueAgent:



What are the principles of the law, can you mention them?

You are confusing yourself the 10commandments are not different from the 2commandments to love God and ones neighbor.
Matthew 22:39-40
And the second is like it: ‘Love your neighbor as yourself.’
40 All the Law and the Prophets hang on these two
commandments.”

Check Deut 6:5; Lev 19:18. That's the command Jesus was quoting. That was a different command from the ten. In fact, the ten was drawn from them.

Where is it written that we should consider the law as a whole?
When God appeared in mount Sinai how many laws did he give the Israelites?

You are cutting and placing Bible verses to fit your preconceived beliefs.

You quoted Matt 5:19. Can u read the whole chapter to see how many laws included in the "law" Jesus mentioned. Check and you will get the picture clear.

blueAgent:


More personal talks than facts.
Which one is the law of Christ?

You shoot yourself on the foot, how can the law be abolished when Jesus raised the bar of the law?

Fornication is not only when one sleeps with a woman but by lusting looking at a woman is Sin

Killing is not when we use gun to shoot people but when we have unwarranted anger towards others it is also seen as murder by God.

Does this look like a law that was changed or abolished?

Gal 6:2.

We live by principles, no longer under a written code. If you want to be under a written code, good. Observe all the law.

blueAgent:



This is your personal opinion not Bible.
and it does not count.

So if you err in one, you don't err in all. That is Bible I guess. Alright.

JMAN05:


Gal 6:2.

We live by principles, no longer under a written code. If you want to be under a written code, good. Observe all the law.

See you.
You have boxed yourself into a corner that you cannot come out from.

You craftly dodged to answer my questions.

JMAN05:


Check Deut 6:5; Lev 19:18. That's the command Jesus was quoting. That was a different command from the ten. In fact, the ten was drawn from them.


You quoted Matt 5:19. Can u read the whole chapter to see how many laws included in the "law" Jesus mentioned. Check and you will get the picture clear.

You are confusing yourself.
Must Jesus mention all the law?
Jesus has already told you that a dot or T cannot be removed from that law.
What else do you want?


Matthew 5:17-18 ...'Think not that I am come to destroy the law,
or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil. For verily
I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle
shall in no wise pass from the law , till all be fulfilled.'
Now many Christians look at this verse and for some strange
reason use it to defend their belief that Jesus "did away" with
the ten commandments. And yet that is a clear contradiction
to what Jesus actually said above. Look, Jesus said He DIDN'T
come to destroy the law, He came to "fulfil". And that word
fulfil in the original language actually means "to bring FULL
MEANING" to the law. And the next verse is even more clear:
"Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise
pass from the law."
Do you see what Christ Jesus is saying here? It is so clear.
One jot or tittle shall NOT pass from the law till the end of this
world. What law? Read the rest of Matthew 5 and you will see
that Jesus was talking about the ten commandments. Friends,
if one jot or tittle has NOT passed from the ten
commandments, then the 4th commandment concerning the
sabbath day remains EXACTLY as it was, which means the
sabbath day is the 7th day of the week (our Saturday), not the
1st (Sunday).

JMAN05:


There is something am trying to understand from your response. Pls can I know: do you think that the ten commandments has been there before Moses brought it from the mountain?

Do you apply all mention of law to be the ten commandment?

Let me know.

100% Yes.

The bible says sin is not imputed were there is no law.

God would not have punished Sodom and Gomarrah and other nations and people he punished before the giving of the law if the law was not existing then.
Romans 5:13.
For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is
not imputed when there is no law.

Question you should ask yourself how did Joseph know that sleeping with his masters wife was sin against God?

JMAN05:


What do u understand by God's finger?

See question?

Instead of you to give me a straight answer you are trying to divert the issue at hand.

JMAN05:


There is something am trying to understand from your response. Pls can I know: do you think that the ten commandments has been there before Moses brought it from the mountain?

Do you apply all mention of law to be the ten commandment?

Let me know.

The New Covenant: Does It Abolish God's Law? /
Did the Ten Commandments Exist Before Moses?
Did the Ten Commandments
Exist Before Moses?

The Bible shows that the Ten Commandments did not
originate with Moses or in his time.
hey believe that the Sinai Covenant
and God’s commandments came into
existence together and went out of
existence together.
But is such reasoning biblical? The facts
show it is not. A close look at the Scriptures
reveals that breaking the Ten
Commandments was a sin before the
covenant at Mt. Sinai, so arguments that
they came into existence with that covenant
and were terminated with it cannot be true.
Let’s notice the scriptural proof.
God’s Word defines sin as “the
transgression of the law” ( 1 John 3:4 , KJV) or
“lawlessness” (New King James Version,
NIV). Therefore, “where there is no law
there is no transgression” ( Romans 4:15 ).
This is what the Bible clearly says! So do we
find transgressions of the Ten
Commandments described as sinful before
Mt. Sinai? Clearly we do.
For example, Genesis 13:13 tells us that “the
men of Sodom were exceedingly wicked and
sinful against the Lord.” Since sin is
violating God’s law, the people of Sodom
could not have been punished for being
wicked and sinful if no law condemned
what they were doing. We must conclude,
therefore, that God had already made
available the knowledge of what is sinful.
Here is a clear example. Genesis 20:3-9 and
Genesis 39:7-9 describe adultery as “a great
sin” and a “sin against God.” Adultery
breaks the Seventh Commandment .
In Genesis 3:6-17 , God punishes Adam and
Eve for their coveting and stealing—
breaking the Tenth and Eighth
Commandments . They also dishonored Him
as their parent, violating the Fifth
Commandment .
In Genesis 4:9-12 , God punishes Cain for
murder and lying—violations of the Sixth
and Ninth Commandments .
In Exodus 16:4 , several days to several
weeks before God established His covenant
with the Israelites at Mt. Sinai, we find God
giving them a test to see “whether they will
walk in My law or not.” His test involved
whether they would rest on the seventh-day
Sabbath as He commanded in the Fourth
Commandment of that law—with which
they were at least partly familiar. The
seventh day had been hallowed—set aside
as holy by God—from the time of Adam
and Eve ( Genesis 2:1-3 ).
God’s reaction to their disobedience is
revealing. He exclaims, “How long do you
refuse to keep My commandments and My
laws?” ( Exodus 16:28 ). God clearly speaks of
both His “commandments and … laws” as
already existing and in force well before He
listed the Ten Commandments verbally at
Mt. Sinai, as described four chapters later!
Therefore, the Ten Commandments were
only codified —written in stone as part of a
formal covenant—at Mt. Sinai. Scripture
clearly shows that they existed and were in
force well before then.
This is stated explicitly in Genesis 26:5 ,
where God tells Isaac that He blessed his
father Abraham “because Abraham obeyed
My voice and kept My charge, My
commandments, My statutes, and My laws.”
This event took place centuries before the
covenant at Mt. Sinai, centuries before
Moses and two generations before Judah,
head of the tribe that much later would
become known as the Jews, was born! (Be
sure to read “Did Abraham Keep the Same
Commandments God Gave to Moses?” on
page 13).
In Leviticus 18:21-27 , God calls the
idolatrous practices of the people of the
land of Canaan “abominations”—actions so
filthy and degrading that God compared
their expulsion to being “vomited out” of
the land ( Leviticus 18:28 ). What was their
sin? Among other things, idolatry (the
worship of false gods) and human sacrifice,
which violated the First, Second and Sixth
Commandments .
The Bible shows that the Ten
Commandments did not originate with
Moses or in his time. Nor were they in any
way limited only to the Jews. They were in
effect and known long before Moses or a
people known as the Jews existed. They are
the foundation of God’s laws that show us
how to love God (defined by the first four
Commandments) and how to love our
fellow man (defined by the last six).
This is why, after Jesus Christ returns to
establish His glorious Kingdom on earth,
Isaiah 2:3 tells us that “many people shall
come and say, ‘Come, and let us go up to
the mountain of the Lord, to the house of
the God of Jacob; He will teach us His ways,
and we shall walk in His paths.’ For out of
Zion shall go forth the law, and the word of
the Lord from Jerusalem.”
At that time, all of mankind will at last be
taught to live according to all of God’s laws
and commandments!



https://www.ucg.org/bible-study-tools/booklets/the-new-covenant-does-it-abolish-gods-law/did-the-ten-commandments-exist-before-moses

JMAN05:


God divided it into ceremonial, civil and moral. Can I see the reference?

6 Differences between God
Laws and Mosaic Law
There are 6 differences between God laws and Mosaic
Law.
If a person fails to differentiate these laws, s/he gets
confused with which part of the law applies to him/her.
God laws are the Ten Commandments found in Exodus
20 while Mosaic Law are all other Old Testament laws
found in the Torah or Pentateuch books (first five books
of the bible ).

6 Differences between God laws
and Mosaic Law
The 6 differences are; –

1. God laws were audibly spoken by God at Mount Sinai
Ex 19:9, 20:1 And the LORD said to Moses, Lo, I
come to you in a thick cloud, that the people may
hear when I speak with you, and believe you for ever.
And God spoke all these words, saying… While Moses
laws were not given audibly but given to Moses
privately.

2. God laws were directly written by the figure of God on
table stones Ex 31:18: And he gave to Moses, when
he had made an end of communing with him upon
mount Sinai, two tables of testimony, tables of stone,
written with the finger of God, while the Law of Moses
was not written by God but by Moses inspired by God
Deut 31:9 And Moses wrote this law.

3. It is God who commanded His laws in Mount. Sinai
Deut 4:13-14: And he declared unto you his covenant,
which he commanded you to perform, even ten
commandments; and he wrote them upon two tables
of stone. And the LORD commanded me at that time
to teach you statutes and judgments, that you might
do them in the land which you go over to possess
it. While Moses commanded his laws (the statutes
and judgments) to the children of Israel. Notice the
two different commanders of the two laws.

4. The law of God was preserved uniquely inside the ark
of covenant Ex 25:16: And you shall put into the ark
the testimony which I shall give you, while the Law of
Moses was place on the side of the ark Deut
31:24-26: And it came to pass, when Moses had
made an end of writing the words of this law in a
book, until they were finished, that Moses
commanded the Levites, which bear the ark of the
covenant of the LORD, saying, take this book of the
law, and put it in the side of the ark of the covenant
of the LORD your God, that it may be there for a
witness against you.

5. 2Ki 21:8: Neither will I make the feet of Israel move
any more out of the land which I gave their fathers;
only if they will observe to do according to all that I
have commanded them, and according to all the law
that my servant Moses commanded them . From this
verse we see also that there are two different laws.
God uses the words ‘ I have commanded them ’
meaning the Ten Commandments while ‘ The laws that
my servant Moses commanded them ’ meaning the
laws of Moses.

6. Daniel revealed this difference between these laws.
Dan 9:11: Yea, all Israel have transgressed your law,
even by departing, that they might not obey you voice;
therefore the curse is poured upon us, and the oath
that is written in the law of Moses the servant of God,
because we have sinned against him. ‘Your law’
referring to God laws; the Ten Commandments while
‘the law of Moses’ referring to the Mosaic Law.
A Christian has to differentiate these two laws because
God’s law (the Ten Commandments) applies to all people
at all times while the Law of Moses is specifically for the
Jewish people.

JMAN05:


God divided it into ceremonial, civil and moral. Can I see the reference?

God's Ten Commandment Law
MANY people often confuse Moses Law with God's Ten Commandment
Law, but they are very different.
Moses' law was the temporary, ceremonial law of the Old Testament. It
regulated the priesthood, sacrifices, rituals, meat and drink offerings, etc.,
all of which foreshadowed the cross. This law was added "till the seed
should come," and that seed was Christ (Galatians 3:16, 19). The ritual and
ceremony of Moses' law pointed forward to Christ's sacrifice. When He
died, this law came to an end, but the Ten Commandments (God's law)
"stand fast for ever and ever." Psalm 111:7,8.
There are two laws that are made crystal clear in the following verses
below. Daniel 9:10 is talking about God's law and verse 11 is talking about
Moses' law:
"Neither have we obeyed the voice of the LORD our God, to walk in his
laws, which he set before us by his servants the prophets."
"Yea, all Israel have transgressed thy law, even by departing, that they
might not obey thy voice; therefore the curse is poured upon us, and the
oath that is written in the law of Moses the servant of God, because we
have sinned against him." Daniel 9:10,11
Special Note: Please note that God's law also called the 10 Commandments
has existed at least as long as sin has existed. The Bible says, "Where no
law is, there is no transgression [or sin]." Romans 4:15. So God's Ten
Commandment law existed from the beginning. Men broke that law.
"Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the
transgression of the law." 1 John 3:4 Because of sin (or breaking God's
law), Moses law was given (or "added" Galatians 3:16, 19) till Christ
should come and die. Two separate laws involved: God's law or 10
Commandments and Moses law.
Moses
Law
Ten
Commandments
Called "Law contained in
ordinances"
EPH. 2:15 Having abolished in
his flesh the enmity, even the
law of commandments
contained in ordinances; for
to make in himself of twain one
new man, so making peace.
Called "the Royal law"
JAMES 2:8 If ye fulfil the royal
law according to the scripture,
Thou shalt love thy neighbour
as thyself, ye do well:
Written by Moses in a book
2 CHRON. 35:12 And they
removed the burnt offerings,
that they might give according
to the divisions of the families
of the people, to offer unto the
LORD, as it is written in the
book of Moses. And so did they
with the oxen.
Written by God on stone
EXO. 31:18 And he gave unto
Moses, when he had made an
end of communing with him
upon mount Sinai, two tables of
testimony, tables of stone,
written with the finger of
God.
EXO. 32:16 And the tables were
the work of God, and the
writing was the writing of
God, graven upon the tables .
Placed in the side of the ark
DEUT. 31:26 Take this book of
the law, and put it in the side
of the ark of the covenant of
the LORD your God, that it may
be there for a witness against
thee.
Placed inside the ark
EXO. 40:20 And he took and put
the testimony into the ark ,
and set the staves on the ark,
and put the mercy seat above
upon the ark:
Ended at the cross
EPH. 2:15 Having abolished in
his flesh the enmity, even the
law of commandments
contained in ordinances; for
to make in himself of twain one
new man, so making peace.
Will stand forever
LUKE 16:17 And it is easier for
heaven and earth to pass,
than one tittle of the law to
fail.
Added because of sin
GAL. 3:19 Wherefore then
serveth the law? It was added
because of transgressions , till
the seed should come to whom
the promise was made; and it
was ordained by angels in the
hand of a mediator.
Points out sin
ROM. 7:7 What shall we say
then? is the law sin? God
forbid. Nay, I had not known
sin, but by the law : for I had
not known lust, except the law
had said, Thou shalt not covet.
ROM. 3:20 Therefore by the
deeds of the law there shall no
flesh be justified in his sight:
for by the law is the
knowledge of sin.
Contrary to us, against us
COL. 2:14 Blotting out the
handwriting of ordinances
that was against us, which
was contrary to us, and took it
out of the way, nailing it to his
cross.
Not grievous
1 JOHN 5:3 For this is the love
of God, that we keep his
commandments: and his
commandments are not
grievous.
Judges no man
COL. 2:14-16 Blotting out the
handwriting of ordinances that
was against us, which was
contrary to us, and took it out
of the way, nailing it to his
cross; And having spoiled
principalities and powers, he
made a shew of them openly,
triumphing over them in it. Let
no man therefore judge you
in meat, or in drink, or in
respect of an holyday, or of the
new moon, or of the sabbath
days:
Judges all men
JAM. 2:10-12 For whosoever
shall keep the whole law, and
yet offend in one point, he is
guilty of all. For he that said, Do
not commit adultery, said also,
Do not kill. Now if thou commit
no adultery, yet if thou kill,
thou art become a transgressor
of the law. So speak ye, and so
do, as they that shall be judged
by the law of liberty.
Carnal
HEB. 7:16 Who is made, not
after the law of a carnal
commandment, but after the
power of an endless life.
Spiritual
ROM. 7:14 For we know that
the law is spiritual : but I am
carnal, sold under sin.
Made nothing perfect
HEB. 7:19 For the law made
nothing perfect , but the
bringing in of a better hope did;
by the which we draw nigh
unto God.
Perfect
PSALMS 19:7 The law of the
LORD is perfect , converting
the soul: the testimony of the
LORD is sure, making wise the
simple.

JMAN05:


God divided it into ceremonial, civil and moral. Can I see the reference?

Click and read.
https://www.preparingforeternity.com/mosevs10.htm

JMAN05:


There is something am trying to understand from your response. Pls can I know: do you think that the ten commandments has been there before Moses brought it from the mountain?

Do you apply all mention of law to be the ten commandment?

Let me know.

No I do not apply all the mention of the law to mean the ten commandments but I look at the context in which the word law is applied than I can ascertain if it is the 10commandments or any other law that is been referred to.

JMAN05:


I did say to you that Jesus did observe the law. The law was out of the way after his death. Of course, he pointed out the principles in the law while alive cos this will replace the strict law observance.

Notice in that Matthew 5, that Jesus did not isolate the ten commandments as the commandments he mentioned in verse 19.

See verses 23,24 still encouraged animal sacrifice. Verses 33, 38 is also not among the ten. These are among the commandments Jesus mentioned in verse 19.

I have said before, if you take only the ten commandment, you are rejecting the most important commandments which are: love God with all your heart, soul and strength, and loving your neighbor as yourself. (Deut 6:5; Lev 19:18) these are not part of the ten. So all the commands, including the ten commandments emanated from these two. Yet these two is not part of the ten.

I give advise: when considering the law, consider it as a whole. Do not detatch some from the rest. The law is a body of rules. They are together.

Jesus death cannot nullify or abolish the law, just as a Man's will cannot be changed ones he is dead so also the law cannot be changed at the death of Jesus.

Any change to the law would have been done by Jesus while he was alive but he did not because he never intended to.

Hebrews 9:13-20 English Standard Version (ESV)
For if the blood of goats and bulls, and the
sprinkling of defiled persons with the ashes of a
heifer, sanctify for the purification of the flesh,
how much more will the blood of Christ, who
through the eternal Spirit offered himself without
blemish to God, purify our conscience from dead
works to serve the living God.
Therefore he is the mediator of a new covenant, so
that those who are called may receive the promised
eternal inheritance, since a death has occurred that
redeems them from the transgressions committed
under the first covenant. For where a will is
involved, the death of the one who made it must be
established. For a will takes effect only at death,
since it is not in force as long as the one who made it
is alive. Therefore not even the first covenant was
inaugurated without blood. For when every
commandment of the law had been declared by
Moses to all the people, he took the blood of calves
and goats, with water and scarlet wool and hyssop,
and sprinkled both the book itself and all the people,
saying, “This is the blood of the covenant that God
commanded for you.”

blueAgent:



Jesus death cannot nullify or abolish the law, just as a Man's will cannot be changed ones he is dead so also the law cannot be changed at the death of Jesus.

Any change to the law would have been done by Jesus while he was alive but he did not because he never intended to.

Hebrews 9:13-20 English Standard Version (ESV)
For if the blood of goats and bulls, and the
sprinkling of defiled persons with the ashes of a
heifer, sanctify for the purification of the flesh,
how much more will the blood of Christ, who
through the eternal Spirit offered himself without
blemish to God, purify our conscience from dead
works to serve the living God.
Therefore he is the mediator of a new covenant, so
that those who are called may receive the promised
eternal inheritance, since a death has occurred that
redeems them from the transgressions committed
under the first covenant. For where a will is
involved, the death of the one who made it must be
established. For a will takes effect only at death,
since it is not in force as long as the one who made it
is alive. Therefore not even the first covenant was
inaugurated without blood. For when every
commandment of the law had been declared by
Moses to all the people, he took the blood of calves
and goats, with water and scarlet wool and hyssop,
and sprinkled both the book itself and all the people,
saying, “This is the blood of the covenant that God
commanded for you.”

We v discussed that.

blueAgent:


No I do not apply all the mention of the law to mean the ten commandments but I look at the context in which the word law is applied than I can ascertain if it is the 10commandments or any other law that is been referred to.

Ok thanks, but do u think the ten commandments have been there even before Moses?

blueAgent:



Click and read.
https://www.preparingforeternity.com/mosevs10.htm

Sorry, it appears you didn't see my question.

I said: "God divided it into ceremonial, civil and moral. Can I see the reference?"

blueAgent:



Jesus death cannot nullify or abolish the law, just as a Man's will cannot be changed ones he is dead so also the law cannot be changed at the death of Jesus.

Any change to the law would have been done by Jesus while he was alive but he did not because he never intended to.

Hebrews 9:13-20 English Standard Version (ESV)
For if the blood of goats and bulls, and the
sprinkling of defiled persons with the ashes of a
heifer, sanctify for the purification of the flesh,
how much more will the blood of Christ, who
through the eternal Spirit offered himself without
blemish to God, purify our conscience from dead
works to serve the living God.
Therefore he is the mediator of a new covenant, so
that those who are called may receive the promised
eternal inheritance, since a death has occurred that
redeems them from the transgressions committed
under the first covenant. For where a will is
involved, the death of the one who made it must be
established. For a will takes effect only at death,
since it is not in force as long as the one who made it
is alive. Therefore not even the first covenant was
inaugurated without blood. For when every
commandment of the law had been declared by
Moses to all the people, he took the blood of calves
and goats, with water and scarlet wool and hyssop,
and sprinkled both the book itself and all the people,
saying, “This is the blood of the covenant that God
commanded for you.”

I don't think you read my comment well. Let me post it again.

I did say to you that Jesus did observe the law. The law was out of the way after his death. Of course, he pointed out the principles in the law while alive cos this will replace the strict law observance.

Notice in that Matthew 5, that Jesus did not isolate the ten commandments as the commandments he mentioned in verse 19.

See verses 23,24 still encouraged animal sacrifice. Verses 33, 38 is also not among the ten. These are among the commandments Jesus mentioned in verse 19.

I have said before, if you take only the ten commandment, you are rejecting the most important commandments which are: love God with all your heart, soul and strength, and loving your neighbor as yourself. (Deut 6:5; Lev 19:18) these are not part of the ten. So all the commands, including the ten commandments emanated from these two. Yet these two is not part of the ten.

I give advise: when considering the law, consider it as a whole. Do not detatch some from the rest. The law is a body of rules. They are together..

blueAgent:

49

God's Ten Commandment Law
MANY people often confuse Moses Law with God's Ten Commandment
Law, but they are very different.
Moses' law was the temporary, ceremonial law of the Old Testament. It
regulated the priesthood, sacrifices, rituals, meat and drink offerings, etc.,
all of which foreshadowed the cross. This law was added "till the seed
should come," and that seed was Christ (Galatians 3:16, 19). The ritual and
ceremony of Moses' law pointed forward to Christ's sacrifice. When He
died, this law came to an end, but the Ten Commandments (God's law)
"stand fast for ever and ever." Psalm 111:7,8.
There are two laws that are made crystal clear in the following verses
below. Daniel 9:10 is talking about God's law and verse 11 is talking about
Moses' law:
"Neither have we obeyed the voice of the LORD our God, to walk in his
laws, which he set before us by his servants the prophets."
"Yea, all Israel have transgressed thy law, even by departing, that they
might not obey thy voice; therefore the curse is poured upon us, and the
oath that is written in the law of Moses the servant of God, because we
have sinned against him." Daniel 9:10,11

Ok, you are saying according to my understanding, that Gal 3:16,19 is setting out a reason for the law. And by the law, you understand it that Gal 3 is talking about ceremonial laws which specifically is the law of Moses.

You contrasted God's law with Moses law by quoting Dan 9:10,11.

Firstly, who gave Moses what he wrote as the ceremonial law? We know God did. So why the separation? If we create differences in the use of the "Law" in the Bible, we ll run into trouble.

You did say that the law of Moses comprises of the ceremonial laws, so it's temporary. But when you quoted Dan 9:10,11 it creates a contradiction. Why? Notice that Gal 3:10 says that curse is anyone that does not remain in all that is written in the book.

It says book/scroll, not tablet. So the curse follows any who does not follow the law. The ten words God gave was later written on a scroll. Do you think the first century Jews were reading from the stone tablet? They read the law, all of it, including the ten commandment from a scroll. It was the law Moses penned on scroll(which includes the ten commandments) that people used. The stone tablet was not used extensively. So, when the Bible calls law of Moses, it does not exclude the ten words. The ten commandments were among the commands penned by Moses in the Torah.

This division will land us into trouble. View the law as a whole. Moses worked under God's direction.

Dan 9:10,11 mentioned about curses in the law of Moses because of not obeying the voice of God. Can we create two commands here? Let's see where the curse is found and what led to the curses.

The curses are found in Deut 28:15 - . But what attracts these curses?

That could be found in Deut 27:15-26. Go thru it and you ll see that the errors that attract these curses are not restricted to the ten commandments. Then you ll see why I counsel against creating a discrepancy in the law.

So when Gal 3:10 spoke of curse for not observing all the law, something more than the ten commandments was involved. From the curses you find some of the ten words and some of words Moses gave. Why? Cos all of them are from God. No discrepancy. Daniel was not advocating any.

Special Note: Please note that God's law also called the 10 Commandments
has existed at least as long as sin has existed. The Bible says, "Where no
law is, there is no transgression [or sin]." Romans 4:15. So God's Ten
Commandment law existed from the beginning. Men broke that law.
"Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the
transgression of the law." 1 John 3:4 Because of sin (or breaking God's
law), Moses law was given (or "added" Galatians 3:16, 19) till Christ
should come and die.

God has always told people of ancient times what he required of them. That became a law to which they will follow. Permit me to say this: that someone does not have a law, does not mean he never sins. That is not what Paul means. But law makes the person aware of his sinful nature. It confirms the prodding of the conscience.

Before Moses, the words God spoke to the people stands as law for them. These instructions does not necessarily consist of the ten commandments. God is righteous always. So he had always known what is morally upright. It is his nature. Whether He voices it through a command or not, He knows it even before creating humans. So, even before Moses, God knows what is right. At times he gives instructions that we later come to see as relating to the ten words. But he also does give other instructions that have nothing to do with the ten words. Even some commands that are ritualistic. This does not then mean that the ceremonial laws has been part of the command all along.

For example: Abel made a sacrificial smoke, Abraham did also, Noah did make one too. Even Job made sacrifices under God's direction. This could be found in Job 42:8. Was the "Mosaic law" added already by this time?

Also, God commanded Abraham to circumcise his family as a sign of covenant. Was Mosaic law already functional? No. Now, this law has nothing to do with the ten words. Now, since God was the one given this law, can we then say that since God did not write with his 'finger', it was not God command? What matters, is it not what God pronounced, not whether it was his finger?

Now, did God ever instruct Adam, Noah, Abel, Job, Jacob, Abraham etc to keep the Sabbath?

Two separate laws involved: God's law or 10
Commandments and Moses law.
Moses
Law
Ten
Commandments
Called "Law contained in
ordinances"
EPH. 2:15 Having abolished in
his flesh the enmity, even the
law of commandments
contained in ordinances; for
to make in himself of twain one
new man, so making peace.
Called "the Royal law"
JAMES 2:8 If ye fulfil the royal
law according to the scripture,
Thou shalt love thy neighbour
as thyself, ye do well:

Let's check the royal law that I believe you agree is God's law.

Verse 8 quoted 'love of neighbor'. Checking a marginal reference will lead to Lev 19:18. Which law is that? Isn't that what you call Moses' law? That is not among the ten words.

Again we go to James 2:10. We see James alluded to Deut 27:26. Which is what you want us to call Moses' law. My dear, this discrepancy you want to create will land us in trouble. You ll see that in the curses listed in that Deut 27, you ll find the laws are intertwined. No discrepancy at all.

Written by Moses in a book
2 CHRON. 35:12 And they
removed the burnt offerings,
that they might give according
to the divisions of the families
of the people, to offer unto the
LORD, as it is written in the
book of Moses. And so did they
with the oxen.
Written by God on stone
EXO. 31:18 And he gave unto
Moses, when he had made an
end of communing with him
upon mount Sinai, two tables of
testimony, tables of stone,
written with the finger of
God.
EXO. 32:16 And the tables were
the work of God, and the
writing was the writing of
God, graven upon the tables .
Placed in the side of the ark
DEUT. 31:26 Take this book of
the law, and put it in the side
of the ark of the covenant of
the LORD your God, that it may
be there for a witness against
thee.
Placed inside the ark
EXO. 40:20 And he took and put
the testimony into the ark ,
and set the staves on the ark,
and put the mercy seat above
upon the ark:
Ended at the cross
EPH. 2:15 Having abolished in
his flesh the enmity, even the
law of commandments
contained in ordinances; for
to make in himself of twain one
new man, so making peace.
Will stand forever
LUKE 16:17 And it is easier for
heaven and earth to pass,
than one tittle of the law to
fail.
Added because of sin
GAL. 3:19 Wherefore then
serveth the law? It was added
because of transgressions , till
the seed should come to whom
the promise was made; and it
was ordained by angels in the
hand of a mediator.
Points out sin
ROM. 7:7 What shall we say
then? is the law sin? God
forbid. Nay, I had not known
sin, but by the law : for I had
not known lust, except the law
had said, Thou shalt not covet.
ROM. 3:20 Therefore by the
deeds of the law there shall no
flesh be justified in his sight:
for by the law is the
knowledge of sin.
Contrary to us, against us
COL. 2:14 Blotting out the
handwriting of ordinances
that was against us, which
was contrary to us, and took it
out of the way, nailing it to his
cross.
Not grievous
1 JOHN 5:3 For this is the love
of God, that we keep his
commandments: and his
commandments are not
grievous.
Judges no man
COL. 2:14-16 Blotting out the
handwriting of ordinances that
was against us, which was
contrary to us, and took it out
of the way, nailing it to his
cross; And having spoiled
principalities and powers, he
made a shew of them openly,
triumphing over them in it. Let
no man therefore judge you
in meat, or in drink, or in
respect of an holyday, or of the
new moon, or of the sabbath
days:
Judges all men
JAM. 2:10-12 For whosoever
shall keep the whole law, and
yet offend in one point, he is
guilty of all. For he that said, Do
not commit adultery, said also,
Do not kill. Now if thou commit
no adultery, yet if thou kill,
thou art become a transgressor
of the law. So speak ye, and so
do, as they that shall be judged
by the law of liberty.
Carnal
HEB. 7:16 Who is made, not
after the law of a carnal
commandment, but after the
power of an endless life.
Spiritual
ROM. 7:14 For we know that
the law is spiritual : but I am
carnal, sold under sin.
Made nothing perfect
HEB. 7:19 For the law made
nothing perfect , but the
bringing in of a better hope did;
by the which we draw nigh
unto God.
Perfect
PSALMS 19:7 The law of the
LORD is perfect , converting
the soul: the testimony of the
LORD is sure, making wise the
simple.

In as much as God pronounced the law Moses wrote down, it is perfect. Moses was not independent of God. There is a difference between making something perfect and the law being perfect. God gave it, so it's perfect. But the law made people aware of there sorry condition, making them to expect a relief - a Messiah.

How then did it make sin evident? Is it only thru the ceremonial sacrifices? The same Roms 7 you quoted, notice verse 7. Paul said he was aware of sin because of the law. Which law? He gave example. He quoted one of the ten words "you must not cover". The point? It was not only the sacrifices that made sin manifest, even the ten words and others made sin manifest. So if we say the ceremonial aspect goes away when Christ came, because it made sin manifest, then the ten words should follow it cos it also made sin manifest.


2. The law was later penned by Moses in a scroll. That scroll is the Torah. That Torah contained the ten words. When the law of Moses is mentioned, it includes all that was written in the Torah.

3. You quoted colosians to show that the ceremonial law was out of the way. But did you notice that verses 16 spoke against the observance of Sabbath? So whose law?

JMAN05:


Ok, you are saying according to my understanding, that Gal 3:16,19 is setting out a reason for the law. And by the law, you understand it that Gal 3 is talking about ceremonial laws which specifically is the law of Moses.

You contrasted God's law with Moses law by quoting Dan 9:10,11.

Firstly, who gave Moses what he wrote as the ceremonial law? We know God did. So why the separation? If we create differences in the use of the "Law" in the Bible, we ll run into trouble.

You did say that the law of Moses comprises of the ceremonial laws, so it's temporary. But when you quoted Dan 9:10,11 it creates a contradiction. Why? Notice that Gal 3:10 says that curse is anyone that does not remain in all that is written in the book.

It says book/scroll, not tablet. So the curse follows any who does not follow the law. The ten words God gave was later written on a scroll. Do you think the first century Jews were reading from the stone tablet? They read the law, all of it, including the ten commandment from a scroll. It was the law Moses penned on scroll(which includes the ten commandments) that people used. The stone tablet was not used extensively. So, when the Bible calls law of Moses, it does not exclude the ten words. The ten commandments were among the commands penned by Moses in the Torah.

This division will land us into trouble. View the law as a whole. Moses worked under God's direction.

Dan 9:10,11 mentioned about curses in the law of Moses because of not obeying the voice of God. Can we create two commands here? Let's see where the curse is found and what led to the curses.

The curses are found in Deut 28:15 - . But what attracts these curses?

That could be found in Deut 27:15-26. Go thru it and you ll see that the errors that attract these curses are not restricted to the ten commandments. Then you ll see why I counsel against creating a discrepancy in the law.

So when Gal 3:10 spoke of curse for not observing all the law, something more than the ten commandments was involved. From the curses you find some of the ten words and some of words Moses gave. Why? Cos all of them are from God. No discrepancy. Daniel was not advocating any.




God has always told people of ancient times what he required of them. That became a law to which they will follow. Permit me to say this: that someone does not have a law, does not mean he never sins. That is not what Paul means. But law makes the person aware of his sinful nature. It confirms the prodding of the conscience.

Before Moses, the words God spoke to the people stands as law for them. These instructions does not necessarily consist of the ten commandments. God is righteous always. So he had always known what is morally upright. It is his nature. Whether He voices it through a command or not, He knows it even before creating humans. So, even before Moses, God knows what is right. At times he gives instructions that we later come to see as relating to the ten words. But he also does give other instructions that have nothing to do with the ten words. Even some commands that are ritualistic. This does not then mean that the ceremonial laws has been part of the command all along.

For example: Abel made a sacrificial smoke, Abraham did also, Noah did make one too. Even Job made sacrifices under God's direction. This could be found in Job 42:8. Was the "Mosaic law" added already by this time?

Also, God commanded Abraham to circumcise his family as a sign of covenant. Was Mosaic law already functional? No. Now, this law has nothing to do with the ten words. Now, since God was the one given this law, can we then say that since God did not write with his 'finger', it was not God command? What matters, is it not what God pronounced, not whether it was his finger?

Now, did God ever instruct Adam, Noah, Abel, Job, Jacob, Abraham etc to keep the Sabbath?




Let's check the royal law that I believe you agree is God's law.

Verse 8 quoted 'love of neighbor'. Checking a marginal reference will lead to Lev 19:18. Which law is that? Isn't that what you call Moses' law? That is not among the ten words.

Again we go to James 2:10. We see James alluded to Deut 27:26. Which is what you want us to call Moses' law. My dear, this discrepancy you want to create will land us in trouble. You ll see that in the curses listed in that Deut 27, you ll find the laws are intertwined. No discrepancy at all.






In as much as God pronounced the law Moses wrote down, it is perfect. Moses was not independent of God. There is a difference between making something perfect and the law being perfect. God gave it, so it's perfect. But the law made people aware of there sorry condition, making them to expect a relief - a Messiah.

How then did it make sin evident? Is it only thru the ceremonial sacrifices? The same Roms 7 you quoted, notice verse 7. Paul said he was aware of sin because of the law. Which law? He gave example. He quoted one of the ten words "you must not cover". The point? It was not only the sacrifices that made sin manifest, even the ten words and others made sin manifest. So if we say the ceremonial aspect goes away when Christ came, because it made sin manifest, then the ten words should follow it cos it also made sin manifest.


2. The law was later penned by Moses in a scroll. That scroll is the Torah. That Torah contained the ten words. When the law of Moses is mentioned, it includes all that was written in the Torah.

3. You quoted colosians to show that the ceremonial law was out of the way. But did you notice that verses 16 spoke against the observance of Sabbath? So whose law?

You are so desperate to prove your false doctrine that you contradict and confuse yourself.

Moses was not the author of the ten commandments.

The book referred to is the book of Moses. It is so clear to anyone who is not biased.

We are told that the laws of Moses were added because of Sin.
They are shadow of things to come which is Christ.
After Christ died the law has served its purpose it is no longer needed.

But the ten commandments is forever needed because there is no time in eternity that God would allow his name to be used in vain, or allow us to bow to Idols.
Name one law in that 10commandments that is no longer valid?
But God has created,santicified and made the sabbath Holy before Abraham,Noah,Jacob or job ever existed.

All through the Bible it is only the sabbath God calls his Holy day.


Isaiah 58:13 If thou turn away thy foot from the sabbath, from doing thy pleasure on my holy day; and call the sabbath a delight, the holy of the LORD, honourable; and shalt honour him, not doing thine own ways, nor finding thine own pleasure, nor speaking thine own words:

JMAN05:


Ok, you are saying according to my understanding, that Gal 3:16,19 is setting out a reason for the law. And by the law, you understand it that Gal 3 is talking about ceremonial laws which specifically is the law of Moses.

You contrasted God's law with Moses law by quoting Dan 9:10,11.

Firstly, who gave Moses what he wrote as the ceremonial law? We know God did. So why the separation? If we create differences in the use of the "Law" in the Bible, we ll run into trouble.

You did say that the law of Moses comprises of the ceremonial laws, so it's temporary. But when you quoted Dan 9:10,11 it creates a contradiction. Why? Notice that Gal 3:10 says that curse is anyone that does not remain in all that is written in the book.

It says book/scroll, not tablet. So the curse follows any who does not follow the law. The ten words God gave was later written on a scroll. Do you think the first century Jews were reading from the stone tablet? They read the law, all of it, including the ten commandment from a scroll. It was the law Moses penned on scroll(which includes the ten commandments) that people used. The stone tablet was not used extensively. So, when the Bible calls law of Moses, it does not exclude the ten words. The ten commandments were among the commands penned by Moses in the Torah.

This division will land us into trouble. View the law as a whole. Moses worked under God's direction.

Dan 9:10,11 mentioned about curses in the law of Moses because of not obeying the voice of God. Can we create two commands here? Let's see where the curse is found and what led to the curses.

The curses are found in Deut 28:15 - . But what attracts these curses?

That could be found in Deut 27:15-26. Go thru it and you ll see that the errors that attract these curses are not restricted to the ten commandments. Then you ll see why I counsel against creating a discrepancy in the law.

So when Gal 3:10 spoke of curse for not observing all the law, something more than the ten commandments was involved. From the curses you find some of the ten words and some of words Moses gave. Why? Cos all of them are from God. No discrepancy. Daniel was not advocating any.




God has always told people of ancient times what he required of them. That became a law to which they will follow. Permit me to say this: that someone does not have a law, does not mean he never sins. That is not what Paul means. But law makes the person aware of his sinful nature. It confirms the prodding of the conscience.

Before Moses, the words God spoke to the people stands as law for them. These instructions does not necessarily consist of the ten commandments. God is righteous always. So he had always known what is morally upright. It is his nature. Whether He voices it through a command or not, He knows it even before creating humans. So, even before Moses, God knows what is right. At times he gives instructions that we later come to see as relating to the ten words. But he also does give other instructions that have nothing to do with the ten words. Even some commands that are ritualistic. This does not then mean that the ceremonial laws has been part of the command all along.

For example: Abel made a sacrificial smoke, Abraham did also, Noah did make one too. Even Job made sacrifices under God's direction. This could be found in Job 42:8. Was the "Mosaic law" added already by this time?

Also, God commanded Abraham to circumcise his family as a sign of covenant. Was Mosaic law already functional? No. Now, this law has nothing to do with the ten words. Now, since God was the one given this law, can we then say that since God did not write with his 'finger', it was not God command? What matters, is it not what God pronounced, not whether it was his finger?

Now, did God ever instruct Adam, Noah, Abel, Job, Jacob, Abraham etc to keep the Sabbath?




Let's check the royal law that I believe you agree is God's law.

Verse 8 quoted 'love of neighbor'. Checking a marginal reference will lead to Lev 19:18. Which law is that? Isn't that what you call Moses' law? That is not among the ten words.

Again we go to James 2:10. We see James alluded to Deut 27:26. Which is what you want us to call Moses' law. My dear, this discrepancy you want to create will land us in trouble. You ll see that in the curses listed in that Deut 27, you ll find the laws are intertwined. No discrepancy at all.






In as much as God pronounced the law Moses wrote down, it is perfect. Moses was not independent of God. There is a difference between making something perfect and the law being perfect. God gave it, so it's perfect. But the law made people aware of there sorry condition, making them to expect a relief - a Messiah.

How then did it make sin evident? Is it only thru the ceremonial sacrifices? The same Roms 7 you quoted, notice verse 7. Paul said he was aware of sin because of the law. Which law? He gave example. He quoted one of the ten words "you must not cover". The point? It was not only the sacrifices that made sin manifest, even the ten words and others made sin manifest. So if we say the ceremonial aspect goes away when Christ came, because it made sin manifest, then the ten words should follow it cos it also made sin manifest.


2. The law was later penned by Moses in a scroll. That scroll is the Torah. That Torah contained the ten words. When the law of Moses is mentioned, it includes all that was written in the Torah.

3. You quoted colosians to show that the ceremonial law was out of the way. But did you notice that verses 16 spoke against the observance of Sabbath? So whose law?

Stop confusing yourself Colossians is not referring to the weekly sabbath.

The problem is that you and all the pastors that preach that the law has been abolished just pick one verse and build your doctrine on it.

JMAN05:


I don't think you read my comment well. Let me post it again.

I did say to you that Jesus did observe the law. The law was out of the way after his death. Of course, he pointed out the principles in the law while alive cos this will replace the strict law observance.

Notice in that Matthew 5, that Jesus did not isolate the ten commandments as the commandments he mentioned in verse 19.

See verses 23,24 still encouraged animal sacrifice. Verses 33, 38 is also not among the ten. These are among the commandments Jesus mentioned in verse 19.

I have said before, if you take only the ten commandment, you are rejecting the most important commandments which are: love God with all your heart, soul and strength, and loving your neighbor as yourself. (Deut 6:5; Lev 19:18) these are not part of the ten. So all the commands, including the ten commandments emanated from these two. Yet these two is not part of the ten.

I give advise: when considering the law, consider it as a whole. Do not detatch some from the rest. The law is a body of rules. They are together..

Let’s first take a look at the apostle Paul's words in Colossians
2:14–17 : “Having wiped out the handwriting of requirements
that was against us, which was contrary to us. And He has
taken it out of the way, having nailed it to the cross. … So let
no one judge you in food or in drink, or regarding a festival or
a new moon or sabbaths, which are a shadow of things to
come, but the substance is of Christ.”
When some read about the sabbath days that were shadows
and that passed away at the cross, they think that Paul was
referring to the weekly Sabbath, the fourth of the Ten
Commandments. Is this accurate? It’s important to get this
right, because our interpretation of the apostle’s actual
meaning can lead us into deeper truth or into deeper error.
Two Sabbaths
First, there is nothing in the Ten Commandment law about
food, drink, festivals, new moons, or sabbath days (plural). All
these were actually separate laws that God gave for the
physical and spiritual health of His Old Testament people;
these were called ceremonial laws.
Second, Paul wrote plainly that he was speaking of “sabbaths,
which are a shadow of things to come,” and not of the weekly
Sabbath, which is a memorial of something that happened in
the past, at the creation. The contrast between a shadow and
a memorial is quite clear. Indeed, the fourth commandment
does not tell us to keep the seventh day as a type of
something to come. It says: “Remember the sabbath day, to
keep it holy. ... For in six days the Lord made the heavens and
the earth, the sea, and all that is in them, and rested the
seventh day. Therefore the Lord blessed the Sabbath day and
hallowed it” ( Exodus 20:8 , 11 ).
Moreover, to show that he had something other than the
weekly Sabbath in mind, Paul distinctly mentioned “sabbaths,”
plural,” which are a shadow of things to come.” (The word
“sabbath” in the Greek can be singular or plural according to
Strong’s and Greek lexicons.)
Festivals and Shadows
The King James uses the word “holyday,” and some will
contend that it refers to the weekly Sabbath, while the
expression “sabbath days” refers to yearly sabbaths. The
American Standard Version uses “feast day” instead of
“holyday,” and this likely a clearer translation. The word
translated “holyday” is from the Greek heorte, and in John 5:1 ,
this same word is used to designate one of the yearly festivals
of the Jews: “After this there was a feast [heorte] of the Jews;
and Jesus went up to Jerusalem.” This is one of the holy days
that Paul spoke of as having been nailed to the cross.
The “shadows” Paul mentions pointed to Jesus as a Savior
from sin and were observed with that in mind. But the weekly
Sabbath was made for man before sin entered into the world,
before man would need atonement. The shadows pointing
forward to His death as an atonement for sin certainly were
not instituted until after sin. Therefore, since the weekly
Sabbath was instituted before sin, just as was the marriage
institution, it was not a shadow of Christ’s death as a Savior
from sin; and His death did not end the Sabbath day any more
than it brought marriage to an end. Both the Sabbath and
marriage came to us in a perfect world.
Paul’s language shows he was referencing the shadowy
ceremonies that pointed forward to and ended at the cross.
Notice again, carefully, his words in Colossians 2:14 : “Having
wiped out the handwriting of requirements that was against us,
which was contrary to us. And He has taken it out of the way,
having nailed it to the cross.” Paul mentions that these laws
were “against us” and “contrary” to us. Would it be contrary to
Christians to refrain from idolatry, using God’s name in vain,
dishonoring parents, murder, theft, adultery, lying, and coveting
—the sins rebuked by the Ten Commandments? Thus, the
apostle must have been talking of another law—a law that
enjoined food offerings, drink offerings, the observance of
festivals, new moons, and yearly sabbaths.
Why Are These Laws Contrary to Us?
Why would the observance of these ceremonies after the
death of Christ be contrary to the Christian faith? The yearly
sabbath of the Passover involved killing a lamb that
represented Jesus, the Lamb of God. The apostle Paul taught
directly, “Indeed Christ, our Passover, was sacrificed for us" ( 1
Corinthians 5:7 ). Thus, to keep offering a sacrificial lamb after
His death would be to imply that Jesus had not accomplished
atonement. Such an observance would be contrary to the
teachings of Christianity.
Many other shadowy requirements of the ceremonial law
pointed to the death of Jesus on the cross, as well. All these
festivals, food and drink offerings, and sabbaths that were
nailed to the cross, Paul declared to be “a shadow of things to
come.” Then he adds, "But the substance is of Christ." That is,
the substance that cast these shadows was Christ’s body on
the cross.
Think of it this way—late in the afternoon when a tall tree
casts its shadow eastward, one can begin at the farthest end
of the shadow and follow it until he or she gets to the tree that
casts the shadow, and there the shadow ceases to be.
Likewise, we can go back to the time when “through one man
[Adam] sin entered the world, and death through sin,” and
there a merciful God promised to send a Redeemer (Genesis
3:15 ), a Substitute, to die in man’s place. To keep man
continually reminded of this fact, and to supply him with a
means of expressing his faith in the coming sacrifice, God
instituted these ceremonies. All of these were included in the
law that was not written on tables of stone.
Follow these shadowy ceremonies all the way from Eden to
the time of Moses, and then through the wilderness journey
and on for hundreds of years after the settlement in Canaan,
and at last to Calvary—and there they cease. So it would be
"against us" and "contrary" to our faith to observe these
ceremonies after Jesus' death. Not so with the other law. It is
just as necessary to refrain from idolatry, using God’s name in
vain, dishonoring the Sabbath, murder, adultery, and theft after
the cross as before. Indeed, it was the violation of these
principles that caused the death of Christ. Could they have
been set aside or changed to accommodate the carnal mind,
Jesus need not have died.
Now with these truths before us, let us again read Colossians
2:14–17 and see how plainly Paul revealed that he did not
mean that the weekly seventh-day Sabbath had been nailed to
the cross: "Having wiped out the handwriting of requirements
that was against us, which was contrary to us. And He has
taken it out of the way, having nailed it to the cross. … So let
no one judge you in food or in drink, or regarding a festival or
a new moon or sabbaths, which are a shadow of things to
come, but the substance is of Christ."
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JMAN05:


I don't think you read my comment well. Let me post it again.

I did say to you that Jesus did observe the law. The law was out of the way after his death. Of course, he pointed out the principles in the law while alive cos this will replace the strict law observance.

Notice in that Matthew 5, that Jesus did not isolate the ten commandments as the commandments he mentioned in verse 19.

See verses 23,24 still encouraged animal sacrifice. Verses 33, 38 is also not among the ten. These are among the commandments Jesus mentioned in verse 19.

I have said before, if you take only the ten commandment, you are rejecting the most important commandments which are: love God with all your heart, soul and strength, and loving your neighbor as yourself. (Deut 6:5; Lev 19:18) these are not part of the ten. So all the commands, including the ten commandments emanated from these two. Yet these two is not part of the ten.

I give advise: when considering the law, consider it as a whole. Do not detatch some from the rest. The law is a body of rules. They are together..

Even if we accept or assume that the law is a whole, you still don't have evidence that it has been abolished.

Because Jesus said he has not come to abolish the law.
◄ Matthew 5:17
Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I
am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.

Jesus would be a liar if fulfill means to abolish or destroy.

So who abolished the law one you claim?