again is the bible contradicting itself, because i do not see how jesus that died on friday night and resurrected on sunday morning could be said to have died for three days and three nights as the prophecy of the bible says , mmmmmmhhhhhhhhhhhhh, the truth about this christainity of a religion will dawn one day

Okie Dokie. . . . .
If you count 3 days and 3 nights literally from Friday, then He could not have been crucified on Friday. . . . .
However, the phrase "3 days and 3 nights" is a phrase that the Jews used in a way that was not literal.

Y'all will never understand this because of the high level of ignorance that has been bestowed in ur likes!!

The crucifixion and Easter story is mythical and a major farcade and i will point out the major inadequacies:

1. Jesus could have survived the crucifixion. Crucifixion was intended to be a slow torture, lasting for several days. Jesus, however, was crucified on the eve of the Sabbath, when Jesus would have known it was customary to remove the torture victims that evening. ( Was the supposedly son of god that weak when he knew in few hours he would have been let loose?) Jesus didn't spend several days on the cross; instead, he spent several hours.

2.The gospels contradict themselves on this matter. John says Jesus was crucified at noon, while Mark says it was the third hour, or 9:00 a.m. (Jn 19.14, Mk 15.25). In any event, Jesus spent from three to six hours hanging from a cross, torture that traditionally was survived for three to six days."

3. The accounts of Matthew, Mark and Luke contradict each other, even on the parts of Christian mythology which Christians consider to be the most important: The crucifixion and resurrection. They give different sets of final words, confusingly differents accounts of the empty tomb (one of them including an earthquake), and wildly different accounts of the resurrection. They're all making it up!

Jesus' last words, according to Matthew 27:46 and Mark 15:34, were to quote Psalm 22, 'My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?' "But Luke has Jesus quote psalm 31: 'Father, into your hands I commend my spirit'. [Also] John's account, in which Jesus says [, ] 'It is finished' [John 19:28-30]"Freke & Gandy, p173. It seems that Jesus' disciples do not know his last words.

Once Jesus has died, Mark tells us that Pilate is surprised when Jesus has died quickly on the cross (Mark 15:44). This contradicts the gospel of John, where Pilate himself gives the order that Jesus' legs are broken and he be stabbed with a spear in order to quicken his death. ( Who is lying here now)

The empty tomb, according to the Gospel of Mark, was found by some women, who saw a young man in a white robe inside. But Luke says that, actually, what happened was two men in brilliant clothes suddenly appeared by their side (there is no 'man in a white robe' inside the cave). Matthew embellishes the story with an earthquake and has an angel with a face like lightening roll the stone away. Mark's sombre account looks starkly empty in comparison to the other gospels! ( The lies by supposedly jesus eyewitnesses gets more embarrassingly scandalous)

4. When Jesus was resurrected after his death, like various other Roman pagan sun-gods, he appeared to various people. Mark's account contradicts Luke and Acts:

"In Mark and Matthew, the resurrected Jesus appears to his other disciples in Galilee, where they have been specifically sent by divine decree. [But] Luke and the author of the Acts of the Apostles have the risen Jesus appearing in and around Jerusalem [and] not only did they not receive any divine commandment to go to Galilee, but were expressly forbidden to leave Jerusalem." ( Please help me which one do i have to believe now?)

To even go further with the way the gospel has been tampered makes it even look more absurd and unrealistic to believe:

The earliest Gospel account is by Mark. The ending of Mark (Mark 16:9-20) was added later. The account of the resurrection in verses 1-8 does not mention any appearances by Jesus. We can see that the appearances of Jesus were literally 'firmed up' as each Gospel was written, until by John's Gospel we have a totally physical Jesus, in great contrast to the appearances in 1 Corinthians 15.

It became more and more dogmatic as time went on that the resurrected Jesus was a physical body. If, in the opinions of the scribes, the Gospels were not clear enough that Jesus's body was physical, then they would alter the Gospels to make certain that was the case. Take Luke's account. There are 5 clear instances in Luke's Gospel.


Luke 23:53
In Luke 23:53, it says that Jesus was placed in a tomb "where no-one had ever yet been laid". Just to make sure that nobody could argue that people stole Jesus's body, some scribes added the words "and he rolled a great stone before the door of the tomb". No less a manuscript than Codex Bezae was altered to add "and having placed him there he positioned before the tomb a stone that scarcely twenty people could roll."


Luke 24:12
Luke 24:12 reads "But Peter, rising up, ran to the tomb; and stooping down he saw the linen cloths alone, and he returned home marvelling at what had happened.". This was just after Luke writes that the disciples did not believe the women , whose words seemed nonsense to them. This verse is missing from Codex Bezae and some other manuscripts. The text varies in other manuscripts. Why would this verse be dropped from Codex Bezae by a scribe, especially given the reluctance of scribes to delete anything from the text? There are far more than insertions than deletions, especially in the Codex Bezae, which is notorious for adding stuff.

Was this verse added by a scribe so that it could be shown that somebody found the witnesses to the resurrection to be credible? If it was not added, then some scribes must have chosen to delete it. Why on earth would they do that?


The verse is very similar to Peter's rushing to the tomb in John 20:3-10. The word for the linen cloths in Luke 24:12 (othonia) is not the word that Luke has just used in Luke 23:53. (sindoni)

This one verse (Luke 24:12) has 3 words or phrases used nowhere else in Luke or Acts. It also uses an "historic present", which Luke shuns elsewhere, - for example of the 93 historic presents in the Markan verses that Luke used, no less than 92 were changed by him.

By this, I mean that Luke uses 'he sees', when everything else in Chapter 24 is in the past tense. Notice that the NIV translates that as 'he saw'. Even they recognise that writers do not suddenly change tense for no good reason.

Luke 24:12 uses words for 'stooping down', 'the linen clothes', 'went away home' , which are never used elsewhere in Luke or Acts.

Exactly those words in Luke 24:12 which are not otherwise in Luke-Acts are in John 20, with John 20:5, being very close indeed.

There is an Illustrations page available for readers to double check my claims.

Clearly, a scribe has added in the verse. It is missing from important manuscripts, it has many non-Lukan features, but features which resemble John's Gospel and it is impossible to see why a scribe would ever have wanted to delete the verse.


Luke 24:40
Codex Bezae does not include Luke 24:40 - "having said this, he showed them his hands and feet". Either some scribe added this verse, or some scribe dropped it. It is hard to see why any scribe would drop the verse. It is easy to see why a scribe would add the verse, basing it on John 20:20. He would have had to alter it as John 20:20 mentions 'hands and side' and there was no spear-thrust in Luke's Gospel, but that would only be a small change. It would all help to show that the Gospels "recorded" a physical resurrection.


Luke 24:3
In Luke 24:3,Codex Bezae and most of the Old Latin texts do not have the phrase "the Lord Jesus" in "they did not find the body of the Lord Jesus." Clearly, the phrase "the Lord Jesus" was added by a scribe to make sure that the Gospels recorded that the women went to the right tomb. The phrase "the Lord Jesus" only occurs in the Gospels here and in Mark 16:19 (another addition by a scribe!) and it is hard to see why the phrase would have been dropped if it were original to Luke's Gospel.


Luke 24:6
In Luke 24:6,Codex Bezae and most of the Old Latin texts do not have the phrase "He is not here, but has been raised". Clearly, this phrase was added by a scribe to make sure that the women knew that Jesus had been raised It is hard to see why the phrase would have been dropped if it were original to Luke's Gospel.


Conclusion
We have clear evidence that Christians tampered with the text of the Gospels to make them better evidence for the Resurrection. How much tampering went on that we don't have evidence of?


Lets even take pauls own grand delusions that christians have been clinging unto:



Not one of these accounts is contemporary to the Easter Sunday in question. The earliest is by Paul in 1 Corinthians 15. I aim to show that Paul's understanding of the Resurrection is totally different from the Gospel accounts.


Paul's Account
1 Corinthians 15:3-9 'For I delivered to you as of first importance what I also received, that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, that he was buried, that he was raised on the third day in accordance with the scriptures, and that he appeared to Cephas, then to the twelve. Then he appeared to more than 500 brethren at one time, most of whom are still alive, though some have fallen asleep. Then he appeared to James, then to all the apostles. Last of all, as to one untimely born, he appeared also to me.'

These famous words are the earliest words we have describing the Resurrection. Let me pick this apart into tiny pieces. Notice that this evidence never mentions the time or place of any of these appearances. The most basic documentation is missing.

The Gospels are adamant that Jesus was buried in a tomb near or in Jerusalem , that there was a guard at a tomb, that women visited the tomb early, that there were earthquakes, angels, burial shrouds left behind , that Jesus was touched and ate bread etc etc.

Paul, in a letter saying what was of first importance to people who doubted that the resurrection had happened, could not be bothered to mention any of the proofs that the Gospels , 20 or 30 years later, would give. Perhaps he didn't know of them. Perhaps he didn't think that the Gospel stories were important.


In turn the Gospel writers leave out such convincing evidences as an appearance to 500 brethren or an appearance to James, the leader of the Christian Church in Jerusalem. The appearances described by Paul clash head-on with the appearances in the Gospels. Remember that Jesus could not have appeared to the 'twelve' as Paul said, as Judas was dead.

( How is it possible he appeared to 12 people when the bible said judas killed himself? If my maths is that bad i know it remains 11 but where did the 12th Apostle come from?)

'that he was buried' Paul uses the word 'etaphe'. This is just the normal word for burial. It is used in the Gospels in such phrases as 'Let the dead bury the dead', or 'The rich man died and was also buried' (Luke 16:23). There is no meaning of 'entombed' in the word Paul uses. There is a word for 'entombed', and it is used in the Gospels, but not by Paul.

'that he was raised on the third day according to the Scriptures'. Which scriptures? Hosea 6:2 is probably what Paul had in mind, but it is not about a Messiah. In context, it is about Israel repenting and being restored. Note that Paul never states that Jesus was 'raised on the third day in accordance with eye-witness testimony'. He gives no hint that any of these appearances took place on the third day.

If fact i could go on and on to dismantle such farcades and beliefs. Simply put, the bible was written by a bunch of Primitive cattle herders who had no iota of intelligence to construct events properly and had to fabricate stories shamelessly from Pre-christian pagan rituals of resurrection to claim as theirs.

Pffffffssss! Rubbish