AntiChristian:
Did Jesus Perform Any Signs? If He Did Then How Many?

There is a contradiction in the Bible. In one verse we read that Jesus said that no sign will be given to his generation:

Mark 8:11-13
11The Pharisees came and began to question Jesus. To test him, they asked him for a sign (semeion) from heaven. 12He sighed deeply and said, "Why does this generation ask for a miraculous sign (semeion)? I tell you the truth, no sign (semeion) will be given to it." 13Then he left them, got back into the boat and crossed to the other side.

However, in another place it says that his generation would be given the sign of Jonah...

Matthew 12:38-39
38Then some of the Pharisees and teachers of the law said to him, "Teacher, we want to see a miraculous sign (semeion) from you." 39He answered, "A wicked and adulterous generation asks for a miraculous sign (semeion)! But none will be given it except the sign (semeion) of the prophet Jonah.

Some Christians might try to say that Jesus meant that they would not receive a sign from heaven in Mark 8; however Jesus made it clear that they would not receive any semeion and did not specify which kind. Jesus said no semeion would be given to his generation. However, we don't see this in Matthew.

Now obviously when Jesus was talking about giving the people the 'Sign of Jonah', he was referring to his alleged resurrection. (What would be miraculous about him dying and being buried? And even at that Jonah did not die at all)

Another question that arises is the issue regarding all of Jesus' other miracles such as healing the blind, the leper, resurrecting the dead and feeding thousands with a little amount of food. Aren't all of these miracles considered signs?
Either there is a discrepancy between Jesus saying that he will give NO SIGN to the Jews except the sign of Jonah and him doing other miracles such as healing the blind and raising the dead.

Or the other option is Christians stating that Jesus' healing of the blind and his raising of the dead were not miracles or signs of his Prophethood. But that makes no sense. If they were not signs, then why would Jesus perform these miracles?
Someone might argue that Jesus meant to say that he would give no sign afterwards from that particular point in time. However, this could easily be refuted by simply reading on after that passage and seeing passages such as Mark 8:22-26, which show that Jesus healed a blind man or Mark 9:14-onwards, which show Jesus performing exorcism on a boy.

Questions That Christians Need to Answer
1) Why did Jesus say that no sign will be given to his generation in Mark 8:11-13, but said that one sign would be given in Matthew 12:38-39? Weren't Mark's audience misled by Mark's Gospel and understood that Jesus told the Jews that he will give them no sign?
2) If you were successful at harmonizing the difficulty above, then how do you explain the fact that Jesus told the Jews that he would only give them ONE SIGN and that is the sign of Jonah, while he did perform other signs such as healing the blind and feeding thousands with a little amount of food?

By Bassam Zawadi

petra1:


Jesus was simply telling he wont give any sign based on their demand to prove himself . just as the devil demanded " if you're son of God turn the stone to bread" He wont succumb to such demand . His healing were based on needs not Performance to get approval

AntiChristian:


So the miracles were not signs? The Pharisees asked for signs! Many others came to Jesus for same healing which he did.

Moreover he said no sign except the sign of Jonah!

petra1:


They were. God may Perform signs and wonders at his own will but not under obligation to do so at the devil command for show

quote author=AntiChristian post=105707051]

And this proves that the only sign he showed to them was the sign of Jonah right?

No sign will be given or only sign of Jonah will be given?

madegreatbygrace:

Let me ask you these questions :

What is a sign?

Is a sign different from a miracle , or are they one and the same?

AntiChristian:

A sign in this contexts is an approval that shows a superior power from God. Yeah, it means miracle in this context.

quote author=AntiChristian post=105716413]

A sign in this contexts is an approval that shows a superior power from God. Yeah, it means miracle in this context.

madegreatbygrace:





A sign is not always the same as a miracle, at least not in this context .

A miracle is any supernatural occurrence but a sign is the miracle’s significance or hidden meaning. It is what or who the miracle points to.

A sign is a miracle’s reality. Every miracle that Jesus performed in the Bible pointed to His resurrection or Him being the long awaited messiah.


“when the people therefore saw that Jesus was not there, nor His disciples, they also got into boats and came to Capernaum, seeking Jesus. Jesus answered them and said, “Most assuredly, I say to you, you seek Me, not because you saw the signs, but because you ate of the loaves and were filled.”
‭‭John‬ ‭6:24, 26‬ ‭NKJV‬‬

The multiplication of the bread and consequently the feeding of the multitude was a miracle.

However, the people failed to realize the sign behind the miracle which was so they could see that He was the bread that came down from heaven.

“For the bread of God is He who comes down from heaven and gives life to the world.””
‭‭John‬ ‭6:33‬ ‭NKJV‬‬

The bread the people ate could only nourish the body but the bread that came down from heaven gives life to the human spirit.

“And Jesus said to them, “I am the bread of life. He who comes to Me shall never hunger, and he who believes in Me shall never thirst. But I said to you that you have seen Me and yet do not believe.”
‭‭John‬ ‭6:35-36‬ ‭NKJV‬‬

So the people couldn’t see beyond eating of the bread.

Now to the quoted text


“Then some of the scribes and Pharisees answered, saying, “Teacher, we want to see a sign from You.” But He answered and said to them, “An evil and adulterous generation seeks after a sign, and no sign will be given to it except the sign of the prophet Jonah. For as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of the great fish, so will the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.”
‭‭Matthew‬ ‭12:38-40‬ ‭NKJV‬‬

Notice what Jesus said.

He didn’t say no miracles will be given to them, as He performed many miracles afterwards. He said no sign.

That is, He would not perform any miracle for the reason of showmanship, or any other reason apart from making the people to see that He was the Christ.

I hope this helps.

MaxInDHouse:


So if i may ask you, what exactly did your religion teach you about Jesus' ability to perform wonders? Because i was once a Muslim and i remember that Islam taught us that Jesus performed many mighty works.

But if you want to know what he meant by that statement regarding "no sign will be given" i can help you!

AntiChristian:
Did Jesus Perform Any Signs? If He Did Then How Many?

There is a contradiction in the Bible. In one verse we read that Jesus said that no sign will be given to his generation:

Mark 8:11-13
11The Pharisees came and began to question Jesus. To test him, they asked him for a sign (semeion) from heaven. 12He sighed deeply and said, "Why does this generation ask for a miraculous sign (semeion)? I tell you the truth, no sign (semeion) will be given to it." 13Then he left them, got back into the boat and crossed to the other side.

However, in another place it says that his generation would be given the sign of Jonah...

Matthew 12:38-39
38Then some of the Pharisees and teachers of the law said to him, "Teacher, we want to see a miraculous sign (semeion) from you." 39He answered, "A wicked and adulterous generation asks for a miraculous sign (semeion)! But none will be given it except the sign (semeion) of the prophet Jonah.

Some Christians might try to say that Jesus meant that they would not receive a sign from heaven in Mark 8; however Jesus made it clear that they would not receive any semeion and did not specify which kind. Jesus said no semeion would be given to his generation. However, we don't see this in Matthew.

Now obviously when Jesus was talking about giving the people the 'Sign of Jonah', he was referring to his alleged resurrection. (What would be miraculous about him dying and being buried? And even at that Jonah did not die at all)

Another question that arises is the issue regarding all of Jesus' other miracles such as healing the blind, the leper, resurrecting the dead and feeding thousands with a little amount of food. Aren't all of these miracles considered signs?
Either there is a discrepancy between Jesus saying that he will give NO SIGN to the Jews except the sign of Jonah and him doing other miracles such as healing the blind and raising the dead.

Or the other option is Christians stating that Jesus' healing of the blind and his raising of the dead were not miracles or signs of his Prophethood. But that makes no sense. If they were not signs, then why would Jesus perform these miracles?
Someone might argue that Jesus meant to say that he would give no sign afterwards from that particular point in time. However, this could easily be refuted by simply reading on after that passage and seeing passages such as Mark 8:22-26, which show that Jesus healed a blind man or Mark 9:14-onwards, which show Jesus performing exorcism on a boy.

Questions That Christians Need to Answer
1) Why did Jesus say that no sign will be given to his generation in Mark 8:11-13, but said that one sign would be given in Matthew 12:38-39? Weren't Mark's audience misled by Mark's Gospel and understood that Jesus told the Jews that he will give them no sign?
2) If you were successful at harmonizing the difficulty above, then how do you explain the fact that Jesus told the Jews that he would only give them ONE SIGN and that is the sign of Jonah, while he did perform other signs such as healing the blind and feeding thousands with a little amount of food?

By Bassam Zawadi

quote author=AntiChristian post=105730419]

One thing I noticed with you guys is the too much emphasis placed on Jesus.
Why is a sign not equivalent to miracle in Jesus'case?

Noah was given the Prophecy of a sign of the flood.

Moses too separated the red sea. Why didn't these point to their resurrection?

And if Jesus said nothing will be given to them of signs except the sign of Prophet Jonah, was Jonah's experience not also a sign of his disobedience and miracle too?

Jesus said no sign will be given.
Jesus said only the sign of Jonah will be given.
Yet Jesus gave many signs and wonders!

AntiChristian:

What we believe in concerning Jesus is more than what you know when you thought you were a Muslim. Read below.
https://www.nairaland.com/4064473/what-muslims-belief-concerning-jesus

petra1:


Jesus was simply telling he wont give any sign based on their demand to prove himself . just as the devil demanded " if you're son of God turn the stone to bread" He wont succumb to such demand . His healing were based on needs not Performance to get approval

MaxInDHouse:


You don't have to bring in links, the question is simple and straightforward:

What exactly did your religion teach you about Jesus' ability to perform wonders?

According to your religion, did Jesus performed great miraculous works or not?

As regards the SIGNS those antagonists were demanding i can TEACH you that one but first let's settle the issue about Jesus' ability to perform wonders!

AntiChristian:

If you can't read the link, then create a thread for that sir.