Let us look at the following verses from the Bible:

1.  A shoot will come up from the stump of Jesse; from his roots a Branch will bear fruit.
2.  The Spirit of the LORD will rest on him (Jesus)-- the Spirit of wisdom and of understanding, the Spirit of
counsel and of power, the Spirit of knowledge and of the fear of the LORD (Jesus fearing his GOD)--
3.  and he will delight in the fear of the LORD. He will not judge by what he sees with his eyes, or
decide by what he hears with his ears;

(From the NIV Bible, Isaiah 11:1-3)

In regards to the Spirit of GOD Almighty resting on Jesus, please visit:  The Spirit of GOD Almighty came upon others before and after Jesus in the Bible.

Anyway, a simple question here must be asked:  How can Jesus be the Creator of the Universe if he feared GOD Almighty?  Trinitarians often say "Jesus is the Son of God".  And when one tries to get further elaboration from them about what exactly "Son of God" means, they end up telling him that Jesus is the Creator of the Universe.

Almost every single trinitarian Christian that I debated believes that Jesus is the Creator of the Universe.


Let us look at what Jesus said about himself and about GOD Almighty:

"I do nothing of myself  (From the NIV Bible, John 8:28)"

"My Father (GOD) is greater than I  (From the NIV Bible, John 14:28)"

"Father (GOD), into thy hands I commend my spirit  (From the NIV Bible, Luke 23:46)"

"And Jesus said to him, ‘Why do you call me good? No one is good but God alone.  (From the NIV Bible, Mark 10:18)"

"No one knows about that day or hour, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father.  (From the NIV Bible, Matthew 24:36)"

Do these quotes suggest at all that Jesus is in the same level as the Creator of the Universe?

The following excerpt was taken from: http://www.mountainretreatorg.net/bible/god.html

"....And there is only one Jehovah God, who qualifies! In fact, the whole idea of Christ being just a man or lesser god, makes the Christian belief ridiculous.

Isaiah 43:10-11

"Ye are My witnesses, saith the Lord, and My servant whom I have Chosen: that ye may know and believe Me, and understand that I AM He: before Me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after Me.
I, even I, AM the Lord; and beside Me, There is No Saviour."
That word translated Lord there is in the Hebrew [yehovah] Jehovah. There is no god before who is the Saviour, and no god after. Jehovah God is the only possible Saviour. No man, nor superman, could accomplish the task of being burdened with all our sins, judged for them, and be resurrected without them. Even a non-Christians can understand the bankruptcy of any other idea. For when we actually stop to think about it seriously, it's quite ludicrous! Unless this man was the very revelation of God (the only one able to become sin for us, and withstand the judgment thereof), we have no Saviour! And that is exactly what God said in Isaiah chapter 43 verse 11. Who could accomplish such a feat to be a saviour? The answer in all reasonableness is, no one but Jehovah God is the Saviour."

Again, the article goes into great depth in refuting the polytheist trinity paganism.   I recommend reading it

#3:

The following excerpt was taken from: http://www.themodernreligion.com/comparative/christ/bible_son.htm

"Mr. Tom Harpur says in the preface to his book: "The most significant development since 1986 in this regard has been the discovery of the title "Son of God" in one of the Qumran papyri (Dead Sea Scrolls) used in relation to a person other than Jesus.....this simply reinforces the argument made there that to be called the Son of God in a Jewish setting in the first century is not by any means the same as being identical with God Himself." For Christ's Sake, pp. xii."

The article goes into great depth in refuting the polytheist trinity paganism.  I recommend reading it.

IS JESUS GOD's SON or GOD's Servant
All of mankind are the servants of God. If a man were to own another man then that man would be his servant. Obviously this servant would be held in a lower regard than this man's own children (or himself). We do not usually find people telling their sons (or themselves): "come here my servant," or "Go over there my servant." Let us compare this with what God has to say about Jesus (pbuh):

Matthew 12:18: "Behold my servant, whom I have chosen."
Acts 3:13(RSV): "The God of Abraham, and of Isaac,.... hath glorified his servant Jesus."
Acts 4:27(RSV): "For of a truth against thy holy servant Jesus, whom thou hast anointed...."
The Actual Greek word used is "pias" or "paida" which mean; "servant, child, son, manservant." Some translations of the Bible, such as the popular King James Version, have translated this word as "Son" when it is attributed to Jesus (pbuh) and "servant" for most everyone else, while more recent translations of the Bible such as the Revised Standard Version (RSV) now honestly translate it as "servant." As we shall see in later chapters, the RSV was compiled by thirty two Biblical scholars of the highest eminence, backed by 50 cooperating Christian denominations from the "most" ancient Biblical manuscripts available to them today. Chances are that no matter what your church or denomination you are able to name, that church took part in the correction of the King James Version of the Bible which resulted in the RSV.

The exact same word "pias" is attributed to Jacob(Israel) in Luke 1:54 and translated as "servant":

"He hath helped his servant Israel, in remembrance of his mercy;."

It is also applied to King David in Luke 1:69, and once again, it is translated as "servant":

"....the house of his servant David;" (also see Acts 4:25).

However, when it is applied to Jesus (e.g. Acts 3:13, Acts 4:27), NOW it is translated as "Son." (notice that it is not only translated as "son" but as "Son".) Why the double standard? Why the dishonest translation techniques?

"And verily, among them is a party who twist their tongues with the Scripture that you might think that it is from the Scripture but it is not from the Scripture; and they say, 'It is from Allah' but it is not from Allah; and they speak a lie against Allah while [well] they know it!"

The noble Qur'an, A'al-Umran(3):78

"The Messiah will never scorn to be a servant of Allah, nor will the favored angels. Whosoever scorns His service and is proud, all such will He assemble unto Him; Then as for those who believed and did good works, unto them will he pay their wages in full and shall increase them from His bounty. [But] as for those who were scornful and proud, He shall punish hem with a painful torment, nor will they find for themselves other than Allah any ally or champion"

The noble Qur'an, Al-Nissa(4):172-174

QueryUnical:


Yeshua(i.e Joshua) is hebrew while Jesus is Greek.They mean the same thing. Its like naming ur child .Blessing(English), Ibukun(Yoruba)

JUST LISTEN TO YOURSELF!!!
The language Spoken by Eesa( Jesus) is "ARAMAIC" please do some reading for your Salvation!!

JESUS' NAME ACCORDING TO CHRISTIANITY

III. WAS JESUS' NAME "YAHUSHUWA`" OR "YESHUA`" AND DID BOTH MEAN "SAVIOR"?

Was his name "Yahushuwa`"?

 - YAHUSHUWA` - This is theorized to be a combination of "Yahweh" and "Yasha`" meaning "Jehovah is Salvation". This was the name of Moses' companion Joshua Ben-Nun who is referred to as "Yasa`" in the Qur'an.

The problem with this theory is that there were several people in the Tanach named "Yahushuwa`":

1.Yahushuwa`  (Joshua) the son of Nun, companion of Moses, subject of the Old Testament Book of Joshua.
2. Yahushuwa` (Joshua) the Bethshemite (1 Samuel 6:18)
3. Yahushuwa`, (Joshua) governor of Jerusalem under King Hosiah (2 Kings 23:
4. Yahushuwa`, (Joshua) son of Josedech (Haggai 1:1) and so forth...

However, there exists not a single shred of historical evidence that the historical "Jesus" was ever called "Yahushuwa`" in his lifetime. All the aforementioned had this name, yet their names were not transliterated into "Jesus" or "Ieosus". They were transliterated as "Joshua". Thus, we must conclude that "Jesus" was a name very dissimilar to "Yahushuwa`" (Joshua) since it was transliterated by the early Biblical writers into the incongruent "Ieosus" and then later "Jesus". However, the closest thing to a reference of any executed figure in Jesus' time period is the Talmudic entry:

"On the eve of the Passover, Yeshua` was hanged..." [Babylonia Sanhedrin 43A]

One will find this quoted repeatedly in Christian polemics trying to prove the historicity of Jesus. However, this is erroneous due to the following reasons: First this mentions someone named "Yeshua`" and not "Yahushuwa`" who was hung on the eve of Passover. Second, there is nothing to say or support that this was the Biblical "Jesus". As will be further illustrated in the next section, both the names "Yeshua`" and "Yahushuwa`" were very common amongst the Israelites prior to Jesus' lifetime. This brings us to our next supposition regarding his name.

Was his name "Yeshua`"?

 - Yeshua` - This name is rooted in the word "yasha`"  meaning "safety" in Hebrew. Christians attempt to proselytize their theories of a "man-god" Jesus by saying this name of his meant "Salvation". The Problem with that theory is the fact that this name means "He is saved". 
If he is God then who saved him? If this name is a sign of divinity then what of the others with the name Yeshua`? Were they the "only begotten son of God" as well? Obviously not, as no Jews ever held this erroneous idea.

"Now these are the children of the province that went up out of the captivity...Which came with Zerubbabel: Jeshua, Nehemiah..." [Ezra 2:2]

"The ninth to Jeshua, the tenth to Shecaniah," [I Chronicles 24:11]

"And next him were Eden, and Miniamin, and Jeshua, and Shemaiah, Amariah, and Shecaniah..." [II Chronicles 31:15]

"And next to him repaired Ezer the son of Jeshua, the ruler of Mizpah.." [Nehemiah 3:19]

Each and every one of these people have the name "Yeshua`" spelled exactly how the Christians allege Jesus' supposed original name is spelled. However as we can see, this name was transliterated into "Jeshua" by the early Biblical writers and not "Jesus" or "Ieosus". Why then is Jesus the only one named "Jesus" in the entirety of the Bible and, moreover, in the entirety of any recorded history of his time? It is because his name was unique and neither "Yeshua`" or "Yehushuwa`" were his name.

As we can see "Yehushuwa`" and "Yeshua`" were not special or unique names, yet they were very common. However, "Jesus" remains a name very unique to this Messianic character shrouded in controversy. There is no historical record of Jesus being called by either of these names in his lifetime. Even if "Yeshua`" were the name of Jesus it would completely obliterate the Christian position that he was the "Savior" of mankind, since this name does not mean "Savior" but means "He is saved". This would further support the Muslim belief that Jesus was saved from the ignominy of crucifixion and ascended up to heaven alive.

alBHAGDADI:
https://www.nairaland.com/4064473/what-muslims-belief-concerning-jesus


Dear Nairaland,

I came across the above thread on Front Page stating what Muslims believe about my Lord Jesus Christ. It was put on front page on a Friday, a day pro-islamic threads make front page. What bothers me is that the thread spoke things about my Father and Saviour which are contrary to what I know of him. The sad part is that I couldn't correct those things cos Islamic threads are locked away from non-muslims who can only comment if they swear an Islamic creed. That is why I decided to create this thread to put to correction all those things said about my Father, just as a son would. I will appreciate it if the Moderators move this thread to front page this Sunday in the spirit of fairness.

Points from the thread are in quote.


First and foremost, Easa is not the name given to the Messiah we Christians believe in. His real name is Yahshua. The Bible says he comes in his Father's name (Mathew 23:39). Yahshua means Yahweh's Salvation. Easa doesn't carry such meaning.

Yes, he was a prophet but not a slave talk less of being a slave of Allah. He is the son of the Living God YAHWEH who called him his beloved Son.

Mathew 17:5

... He was still speaking when, behold, a bright cloud overshadowed them, and a voice
from the cloud said, “This is my beloved Son , with whom I am well pleased ...


If by Easa you mean Jesus/Yahshua, then you are wrong. Tell me how many men can raise the dead? Those that do that today so it in his name. How many men ressurected from the dead as they promised they would? Those that do that today testify of how he resurrected them. How many perform healing as he did? Those that do today so it in his name.

Saying God has to have a wife before having a son is similar to limiting God's powers. If you believe that the God who created heaven and the earth, humans and animals etc needs a wife before he can have a son, then it's best you stop believing he created all those things.

Islam's denial of Jesus being the son of God who is Father has rendered the religion a LIAR and an Antichrist religion.

1 John 2:22

Who is the LIAR? It is whoever denies that Jesus is the Christ. Such a person is the ANTICHRIST--denying the Father and the Son.

JESUS' NAME ACCORDING TO CHRISTIANITY

III. WAS JESUS' NAME "YAHUSHUWA`" OR "YESHUA`" AND DID BOTH MEAN "SAVIOR"?

Was his name "Yahushuwa`"?

 - YAHUSHUWA` - This is theorized to be a combination of "Yahweh" and "Yasha`" meaning "Jehovah is Salvation". This was the name of Moses' companion Joshua Ben-Nun who is referred to as "Yasa`" in the Qur'an.

The problem with this theory is that there were several people in the Tanach named "Yahushuwa`":

1.Yahushuwa`  (Joshua) the son of Nun, companion of Moses, subject of the Old Testament Book of Joshua.
2. Yahushuwa` (Joshua) the Bethshemite (1 Samuel 6:18)
3. Yahushuwa`, (Joshua) governor of Jerusalem under King Hosiah (2 Kings 23:
4. Yahushuwa`, (Joshua) son of Josedech (Haggai 1:1) and so forth...

However, there exists not a single shred of historical evidence that the historical "Jesus" was ever called "Yahushuwa`" in his lifetime. All the aforementioned had this name, yet their names were not transliterated into "Jesus" or "Ieosus". They were transliterated as "Joshua". Thus, we must conclude that "Jesus" was a name very dissimilar to "Yahushuwa`" (Joshua) since it was transliterated by the early Biblical writers into the incongruent "Ieosus" and then later "Jesus". However, the closest thing to a reference of any executed figure in Jesus' time period is the Talmudic entry:

"On the eve of the Passover, Yeshua` was hanged..." [Babylonia Sanhedrin 43A]

One will find this quoted repeatedly in Christian polemics trying to prove the historicity of Jesus. However, this is erroneous due to the following reasons: First this mentions someone named "Yeshua`" and not "Yahushuwa`" who was hung on the eve of Passover. Second, there is nothing to say or support that this was the Biblical "Jesus". As will be further illustrated in the next section, both the names "Yeshua`" and "Yahushuwa`" were very common amongst the Israelites prior to Jesus' lifetime. This brings us to our next supposition regarding his name.

Was his name "Yeshua`"?

 - Yeshua` - This name is rooted in the word "yasha`"  meaning "safety" in Hebrew. Christians attempt to proselytize their theories of a "man-god" Jesus by saying this name of his meant "Salvation". The Problem with that theory is the fact that this name means "He is saved". 
If he is God then who saved him? If this name is a sign of divinity then what of the others with the name Yeshua`? Were they the "only begotten son of God" as well? Obviously not, as no Jews ever held this erroneous idea.

"Now these are the children of the province that went up out of the captivity...Which came with Zerubbabel: Jeshua, Nehemiah..." [Ezra 2:2]

"The ninth to Jeshua, the tenth to Shecaniah," [I Chronicles 24:11]

"And next him were Eden, and Miniamin, and Jeshua, and Shemaiah, Amariah, and Shecaniah..." [II Chronicles 31:15]

"And next to him repaired Ezer the son of Jeshua, the ruler of Mizpah.." [Nehemiah 3:19]

Each and every one of these people have the name "Yeshua`" spelled exactly how the Christians allege Jesus' supposed original name is spelled. However as we can see, this name was transliterated into "Jeshua" by the early Biblical writers and not "Jesus" or "Ieosus". Why then is Jesus the only one named "Jesus" in the entirety of the Bible and, moreover, in the entirety of any recorded history of his time? It is because his name was unique and neither "Yeshua`" or "Yehushuwa`" were his name.

As we can see "Yehushuwa`" and "Yeshua`" were not special or unique names, yet they were very common. However, "Jesus" remains a name very unique to this Messianic character shrouded in controversy. There is no historical record of Jesus being called by either of these names in his lifetime. Even if "Yeshua`" were the name of Jesus it would completely obliterate the Christian position that he was the "Savior" of mankind, since this name does not mean "Savior" but means "He is saved". This would further support the Muslim belief that Jesus was saved from the ignominy of crucifixion and ascended up to heaven alive.