Wow pilgrim.1.  You've opened my eyes to a lot of things here.  I'm impressed!

**debosky, if I catch you ehn!**

I must confess that I am really enjoying this discourse, but I briefly want to address one of Enigma's points.

Enigma:

3. On your question of where is the house of God? --- The house of God is the person of each Christian --- not some edifice or building that people call "church". Yep, the church building is good to have for meetings of Christians and should be respected --- but ultimately it is just a building. You will recall that the earliest Christians did not have church buildings; they met sometimes in secret and fear in private houses among other places.

While I concur that God dwells in the heart of believers, it is important to note that 'context' matters a lot when using that phrase.  So I do not think this is pertinent to the question pilgrim.1 asked, in this regard.

Also, I don't know what early christians you refer to here, and I do not understand where you got the idea that the church building is 'just a building'.  If it were just that, and not so important to God, I do not think He would have prohibited David from erecting 'just a building' for Him, and instead, pass the privilege to Solomon to build a temple for Him; and I also do not think that Jesus would find it necessary to often preach the word in the synagogue.

Bro, there's much more to the church building than what you think of it.  In the temple dwells the Holy of Holies.

Enigma:

4. On your question of where do we find God's name today? --- Very simple: in the hearts and minds of Christians or believers. You may remember that He said, 'I will write My name in their hearts'.  Remember again that the early Christians had no church buildings; you are not going to say they did not have God's name because they did not have church buildings, are you?

As I said already, context matters a lot in issues like this.  While not disputing your point, it is as well important to note that this also does not apply here.  If we study the Scriptures carefully, we will see that Solomon built the temple, for The Name of the Lord (1 Kings 5:5), as well as for the Lord Himself.  I guess you can draw your inference from here.

Peace.

debosky:

sorry for the digression, I am enjoying this discourse immenseley

pilgrim are you married? If not I want to propose to you right now, please be my wife

Lol @debosky,

You go fit contain my wahala?

--------------------

Purist:

Wow pilgrim.1. You've opened my eyes to a lot of things here. I'm impressed!

@Purist,

Well, at least I can be very thankful to have been of help. I do hope that my subsequent posts would help many more people. Thank you for your very warm encouragement.

Blessings.

@Enigma,

Enigma:

1. "Thy gates"/"Your gates"  ---- my error; you were right "gates" was referring to something wider than the individual tither's gates; I was focussing too much on "house" and forgot the wider context.

No worries, and God bless you.

Enigma:

2. However, even though some translations render it as "your towns", the sense of the passage is actually --- "among you" or "within your community"; and some translations render it this way.  In other words, the point of the passage is that tithers were to give their tithes to (or share their tithes with) widows etc among them or within their community.

Yes, some translations render it variously as "towns" (ESV, HCSB, NIV, etc.), "cities" (The MESSAGE), and "community" (GNB - Good News Bible). However, the import is not lost as to the fact that tithes were taken to a "designated place" where they were first "gathered" and "received" by those appointed thereto (the priests and Levites) and then shared among all who had gathered for the holy celebration. To miss this point is to suffer a great lose.

Compare with other texts that categorically bear out this point. The argument here is that tithes were not handed directly to widows from the tithers' hands; rather, they were first taken to a designated place ('gathered', if you may), and then a distribution/sharing was made to ALL those stipulated within the instruction. Let's see this more closely:

Deut. 14:28
"At the end of three years thou shalt bring forth all the tithe of thine increase the same year,
and shalt lay it up within thy gates"

Deut. 26:12
"When thou hast made an end of tithing all the tithes of thine increase the third year,
which is the year of tithing, and hast given it unto the Levite, the stranger, the fatherless,
and the widow, that they may eat within thy gates, and be filled"


1. Notice that both in Deut. 14:28 and 26:12, the issue treated there was the tithes which were gathered every THREE years. This is distinct from the YEARLY tithes (e.g., Deut. 14:22), and they should never be confused as if they were the same thing.

2. Notice again the fact that the tithes were gathered first ("shalt bring forth. .  shalt lay it up" - D. 14:28) at God's appointed place where He placed His Name, before they were shared/distributed among all who had gathered for the holy celebration. Compare this with Deut. 12:6 & 7 that underscores the importance of taking the tithes to God's designated place:

Deut. 12:6 & 7
"And thither ye shall bring your burnt offerings, and your sacrifices, and your tithes, and
heave offerings of your hand, and your vows, and your freewill offerings, and the firstlings
of your herds and of your flocks: And there ye shall eat before the LORD your God,
and ye shall rejoice in all that ye put your hand unto, ye and your households, wherein the LORD
thy God hath blessed thee."

It is imporatnt to mention this aspect because of the idea that some have expressed to the point that people do not have to take their tithes to Church, or to any designated place.

Enigma:

3.  On your question of  where is the house of God?  --- The house of God is the person of each Christian --- not some edifice or building that people call "church". Yep, the church building is good to have for meetings of Christians and should be respected --- but ultimately it is just a  building. You will recall that the earliest Christians did not have church buildings; they met sometimes in secret and fear in private houses among other places.

(1) The House of God is the CHURCH - (1 Tim. 3:15 - "the house of God, which is the church of the living God". The Church is not a single Christian; rather, it is a collective whole.

(2) I've never mistaken the idea of what exactly is the Church. I also pointed out that if there was never any principle even the NT that people took their tithes or offerings to the Church, then we should not have read such texts as Acts 5:4; and 4:34-35 which I offered earlier. The basic question here is whether or not Christians bring their tithes or offerings to Church; or whether the Church received such from those who gave them. If that is not taught in the NT, I would like to understand why you feel so.

Enigma:

4. On your question of where do we find God's name today? --- Very simple: in the hearts and minds of Christians or believers. You may remember that He said, 'I will write My name in their hearts'.

I may not presently remember if He said 'I will write My name in their hearts'. But He did say: 'I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts" (Heb. 8:10).

As regards His name, He said, "I will write upon him My new name" (Rev. 3:12; see also Rev. 22:4); and this agree in principle with the OT texts that teach us God puts His name UPON His chosen. See:

Num. 6:27 -- "And they shall put my name upon the children of Israel; and I will bless them."

God has placed His name UPON the Church - and it is there that when we are gathered as such in His name that we 'offer' our tithes and offerings.

I fit contain o, any woman who sabi bible like dis, i fit handle the wahala well well

please don't let me interrupt, carry on the discourse. my professions of undying love can continue later

debosky:

please don't let me interrupt, carry on the discourse. my professions of undying love can continue later

Infact sef. . . that one don distract me patapata! Lol. . . I no know if I go fit yan the remaining - but I go try!

@Enigma,

Enigma:

Remember again that the early Christians had no church buildings; you are not going to say they did not have God's name because they did not have church buildings, are you?

The point is that they brought their offerings to Church (as many as were willing) for the fact that God has placed His name UPON the Church, as I've offered above. There is no verse that presents a single person as a 'Church'. Rather, the church is always a matter of several people connected together.

Enigma:

5. On the New Testament and tithes: the NT did not focus on tithing because of its irrelevance to Christians. Jesus only made a passing reference to it in relation to Pharisees that He was rebuking. If tithing was important, He would have taught it; He did not bother with it; rather he taught, again and again, charity. The only other significant NT passage mentioning tithing is the oft misinterpreted Hebrews passage which really was in the context of explaining that Old Testament practices do not carry over into the Christian era. Other than those two references, both of which are ultimately passing references, you will not find anyone teaching tithing in the New Testament ----- because it is irrelevant.

I have three things to offer you:

(a) Jesus did not teach about any type of OFFERING - is that "irrelevant" to the Christian?
I'm being careful here when I offer the above; because I know that He did. However, when you make assertions as you do, you fail to see where He actually taught what you've been missing again and again, but only ascribing it to "passing remarks".

(b) the verses in Hebrews mentioning tithes were not a matter of misinterpretations. I have challenged that view by asking those who feel Hebrews has nothing to teach on the subject, to go back to Genesis and offer answers to the few questions I asked thereto. Aall I got were assertive denials and calumny - which are hardly answers (even though up until today I'm still waiting for their answers!).

(c) in all the texts in the NT mentioning tithes, in WHICH VERSE did Jesus denounce TITHES and TITHERS in the way we have read often and again from those opposed to it? Which one verse did Jesus condemn tithing and tithers?

You see, I'm least interested in personal opinions of people who are not actually reading God's WORD for what it says. Often times I leave questions to challenge and stir the minds of readers to GO BACK to the WORD! If anyone has the discipline to deeply study God's WORD and find answers there, we would not be having protracted arguments back and forth - especially where people have once and again been substituting their own fears and rebellion in place of the conviction that God offers on the subject.

Enigma:

Back to issues to ponder in trying to interprete the tithing passages correctly.

1. The tithes that the tither was supposed to eat himself: are you going to say he first had to hand them over to priests; collect them again before eating them?

WHY were they asked in the first place to take their tithes to a designated place according to divine instruction?

Enigma:

2. If the place was far, he was to sell the tithes for money: was this sale being done by priests on his behalf or did he do the selling himself?

If you read the texts again (e.g., D. 14:26), why then was he asked to "bestow" that money for whatever he desired? Please consult your study tools and check out the meaning of the word translated as 'bestow' in our English Bibles, and then come tell us what you think.

Besides that, just to offer you the pivotal import of WHY it was of utmost importance that the tither took his offerings to God's designated place, consider the following:

Deut. 12:21
"If the place which the LORD thy God hath chosen to put his name there be too far from thee,
then thou shalt kill of thy herd and of thy flock, which the LORD hath given thee, as I have
commanded thee, and thou shalt eat in thy gates whatsoever thy soul lusteth after."

WHY would they be permitted on the one hand to EAT within their gates as above; and yet on the other hand they were expressly FORBIDDEN to do so in Deut. 14:26. That is the difference I have been trying repeatedly to ask that you consider, so that you will see what you have been misconstruing! They were NEVER mixed up in God's WORD!

Third, just to help you solve this problem about the fact that gathering the tithes to a designated place meant that they were first received and then distributed to ALL who had gathered, please consider again the instructions in Deut. 12. When you do, the basic question you should be seeking to answer is WHY was it that they were expressly forbidden to eat the tithes within their gates; but seek out the designated place? If theu could simply have handed their tithes to the poor folks, why did they have to wait to take their tithes to that PLACE?

The reason why I still bring this issue up is because you may suppose that the tithe was mere acts of benevolence to the widows and the poor. .  a sort of kindness (I may be wrong, and please forgive me). However, there were definitely other ways the wealthy were asked to show such benevolence to the widows and the poor without having to wait for the tithes:

Deut. 24:21
"When thou gatherest the grapes of thy vineyard, thou shalt not glean it afterward:
it shall be for the stranger, for the fatherless, and for the widow."

So, if the poor folks could be sustained this way, why wait to take the tithes to a designated place, Enigma?

@Enigma,

Enigma:

3. He was to spend the money on whatever his heart desired; did he give the money to priests to spend on his behalf? So will he say to the priest, my heart desires some wine; then the priest to whom he had given the money will arrange to buy the wine for him?

The tither was to bestow that money for whatever his soul desired - Deut. 14:26. Have you ever seen a Jewish banquet feast before? Have you ever considered the import of such phrases as "everyone had all things common" and that no one claimed that anything was his own?

These questions are actually not indicating maturity of thought, I'm sorry to say. They just make me wonder if you could actually picture the event in correlation with other texts that expound on it. I implore you to do so, and then the many questions one may have against the clear declaration of Scripture will solved.

Enigma:

4. Now apply similar principles to the tithes to be given to or shared with widows, orphans etc; even if there might have been some central sharing --- are you going to say that the Bible passages forbid a tither from giving tithes directly to or sharing tithes directly with widows, orphans etc "within their towns" or "within their gates" or "among them" or "within their community" --- whichever expression you prefer?

If I actually saw ANY VERSE that assumes your idea above, I would agree with you. On the contrary, there was ONLY ONE designated place to which the tithes were to be taken and BESTOWED there! There were not different centers - just one!

Enigma:

5. So if sharing tithes today with widows, orphans etc today should only be done through the "church", could you please point us to where "churches" are distributing these things to widows, orphans etc ------ preferably every month since they collect the tithes every month?

Enigma:

6. Can you say that a Christian who takes his "tithe" and shares it himself with his next door neighbour who is a needy widow and another who is a needy orphan is wrong ---- simply because he did not take the "tithe" to "church"?

You should be able to find the verse that says you could do that. To be benevolent to one's neighour is taught in Scripture; but I didn't read that we should pass our tithes to our "next door neighbours" in any of all the verses we have been discussing! That would simply mean two things: (a) I don't pay any heed to what God says and my own assumptions could replace His WORD; (b) it would mean that the one doing such as you suggested is mixing up issues - and thus removes himself far from God's WORD.

If you're so driven to your assumptions, no worries; but please walk me through the texts that says you could dispense with or forget the fact of taking your tithes to a designated place, and then doing as you choose "INSTEAD".

Enigma:

Consider these for now; there are of course wider issues e.g. how "tithes" was not even money essentially but I'm trying to keep things narrow as to be more readily manageable.

No bother - when we get to the bridge, we'll cross it (as they say). All I ask is that we look into the WORD and not substitute our thoughts there.

Very warm regards.

Again some very simple questions?


1. What is the difference between this so called "designated place" and the "store-house" mentioned in Malachi? Or are they one and the same?

2. If there was just one designated place, how many store-houses were there?

3. How many designated places are there today? How many storehouses are there today?

4. You point out that the tithes were given either yearly or every third year, why is today's tithing not done every year or every third year but monthly?

5. You say the tithes were brought to this so-called designated place to be then distributed to widows, orphans etc; where and when does today's distribution to widows, orphans etc take place?

6. If tithes are paid monthly today, does the distribution to the widows, orphans etc today take place monthly; if not why not and why then collect the tithes monthly?

7. So when is the next third year of tithing and will you advise the tithers on how they can recover the tithes to spend it on whatsoever their hearts desire after having already given the tithes to the pastors?

Enigma:

Again some very simple questions?


1. What is the difference between this so called "designated place" and the "store-house" mentioned in Malachi? Or are they one and the same?

They emphasize the very same principle: tithes were to be taken to the designated place according to God's instruction, rather than choosing to do as we please with them.

Enigma:

2. If there was just one designated place, how many store-houses were there?

The one designated place was the center where God chose to place His name there. In time, there were store-houses (pl.) built for the overwhelming response from willing hearts to respond to the commandment to bring the tithes and offerings. A good place to read for clarification would be 2 Chron. 31:5-12 >>


"And as soon as the commandment came abroad, the children of Israel brought in abundance
the firstfruits of corn, wine, and oil, and honey, and of all the increase of the field
and the tithe of all things brought they in abundantly.

"And concerning the children of Israel and Judah, that dwelt in the cities of Judah, they also
brought in the tithe of oxen and sheep, and the tithe of holy things which were consecrated
unto the LORD their God, and laid them by heaps.

"In the third month they began to lay the foundation of the heaps, and finished them in
the seventh month. And when Hezekiah and the princes came and saw the heaps, they blessed
the LORD, and his people Israel.

"Then Hezekiah questioned with the priests and the Levites concerning the heaps.
And Azariah the chief priest of the house of Zadok answered him, and said, Since the people
began to bring the offerings into the house of the LORD, we have had enough to eat, and have
left plenty: for the LORD hath blessed his people; and that which is left is this great store.

"Then Hezekiah commanded to prepare chambers in the house of the LORD; and they prepared them,
And brought in the offerings and the tithes and the dedicated things faithfully: over which Cononiah
the Levite was ruler, and Shimei his brother was the next."

In time, God acknowledged the storehouses, and that is why we find the proclamation He made in Malachi 3:10 >>

"Bring ye all the tithes into the storehouse, that there may be meat in mine house,
and prove me now herewith, saith the LORD of hosts, if I will not open you
the windows of heaven, and pour you out a blessing, that there shall not be room
enough to receive it."

Besides the terms "storehouse" and "chambers", there were other terms used in Scripture to denote the designated place to which they brought their tithes.

Enigma:

3. How many designated places are there today? How many storehouses are there today?

The PRINCIPLE is clear - Paul has this to offer:

1 Cor. 16:1-3

"Now concerning the collection for the saints, as I have given order to the churches of Galatia,
even so do ye. Upon the first day of the week let every one of you lay by him in store, as God
hath prospered him, that there be no gatherings when I come. And when I come, whomsoever
ye shall approve by your letters, them will I send to bring your liberality unto Jerusalem."

The principle: they collected their offerings - as God prospered them - and when the need arose, they sent them by those they chose and trusted - for the purpose of meeting the needs of the saints in Jerusalem. How would this help us today? We follow the same principle: collect the offerings, and when agreed upon, use them for whatever needs presented before us in keeping with those outlined in Scripture (the sustenance of elders, to honour widows, for Missions and missionaries, for the poor brethren, etc).

Enigma:

4. You point out that the tithes were given either yearly or every third year, why is today's tithing not done every year or every third year but monthly?

I made the distinctions set by God in the LAW; but I offered the PRINCIPLES found in Scripture for Christians. Incidentally, in the ther thread on Tithes, I've also demonstrated how this was discussed in 1 Cor. 9:7-10. The NT does not ask for a literal application of the LAW of tithes; but the apostle no doubt referred to the Law of Moses when he spoke on tithes and offerings.

Enigma:

5. You say the tithes were brought to this so-called designated place to be then distributed to widows, orphans etc; where and when does today's distribution to widows, orphans etc take place?

Within the Church - and from the Church to others outside (see again 1 Tim. 5).

Enigma:

6. If tithes are paid monthly today, does the distribution to the widows, orphans etc today take place monthly; if not why not and why then collect the tithes monthly?

I don't thin I offered that tithes are collected MONTHLY in the NT. Perhaps that is what many people have come to hold, and I have no quarrels about that. However, the clear principle is this:

(a) as God has prospered (1 Cor. 16:2)

(b) according to that a man hath, and not according to that he hath not (2 Cor. 8:12)

Enigma:

7. So when is the next third year of tithing and will you advise the tithers on how they can recover the tithes to spend it on whatsoever their hearts desire after having already given the tithes to the pastors?

Pastors should be responsible with what they receive. I understand the reason why many people have come to be so critically opposed to tithing is as a result of frauds that have taken place by unscrupulous "pastors" - and we can't deny that, or pretend that such things don't happen.

However, the WORD shows us that those who have a heart for God in the ministry should not be given to "filthy lucre" (1 Tim. 3:3, 8; Tit. 1:7 & 11; and 1 Pet. 5:2).

Now, if believers want to spend their tithes upon themselves personally, they can do so if they so wish and NOT give in Church. Surprised? No, that wasn't a mistake - if anyone does not want to tithe, they should not do so at all; instead of giving, and then coming back to fight anyone to "recover" their tithes. This is the warning God was indicating in Acts 5:4 - and to show His utter displeasure at such an idea, we know what happened to Ananias afterward (vs. 5).

The principle that helps me is this: "Whiles it remained, was it not thine own? and after it was sold, [b]was it not in thine own powe[/b]r?" I don't give tithes in order to grumble about it at anytime. It is not the man who receives my tithe that fills my mind. Rather, it is God Hismelf that is always in my heart when I give tithes --

Lev. 27:30 -- "And all the tithe of the land, whether of the seed of the land, or of the fruit of the tree, is the LORD'S: it is holy unto the LORD."

That Scripture is what is always in my heart when I give tithes - it is holy to God alone! Man may receive it, and perhaps abuse it: and whosoever does that will be accountabe to Him. But that is no reason for me to disobey what the Lord has ordained for me as a Christian (1 Cor. 9:14).

Blessings.

Again simple questions:

1. If the tither could not choose what to do with the tithes (particularly the "third-year tithe" why was he instructed to spend the conversion money on whatever his heart desired -- as in Deuteronomy 14: 26 below?

"And you shall spend that money for whatever your heart desires: for oxen or sheep, for wine or similar drink, for whatever your heart desires; you shall eat there before the LORD your God, and you shall rejoice, you and your household.

It doesn't say someone else should spend the money on his behalf, does it? It also makes clear that he could spend the money on whatever his heart desires.


2. When is the next "third year of tithing" in today's Christian calendar? Where is the "designated place" for that? Or is that designated place the same as modern "store-houses"?

3. If the next third year of tithing comes, can a Christian going to the "designated place" then spend the money on whatever his heart desires?

Or is it that God did not know what he was doing when he said they could spend the conversion money on whatsoever their heart desired ---- if that same liberty is not given to today's Christians?

4. What on earth has the 1 Cor 16 that you quoted (dealing with a special collection to be made on one particular occasion for suffering Christians) got to do with tithes/tithing --- unless one reads into the Bible what is not there?

Enigma:

Again simple questions:

1. If the tither could not choose what to do with the tithes (particularly the "third-year tithe" why was he instructed to spend the conversion money on whatever his heart desired -- as in Deuteronomy 14: 26 below?

"And you shall spend that money for whatever your heart desires: for oxen or sheep, for wine or similar drink, for whatever your heart desires; you shall eat there before the LORD your God, and you shall rejoice, you and your household.

It doesn't say someone else should spend the money on his behalf, does it? It also makes clear that he could spend the money on whatever his heart desires.

He could spend the money on whatever his soul desired; but I've asked that you go and consult your study tools and look up the meaning of the word translated as BESTOW in our English Bibles. He bestowed the money (Deut. 14:26) - and he enjoyed the banquet celebration by choosing whatever he found at the celebration center!

You may want to see an example of how this was done in 1 Samuel 1:

(3) And this man went up out of his city yearly to worship and to sacrifice unto the LORD of hosts
in Shiloh. And the two sons of Eli, Hophni and Phinehas, the priests of the LORD, were there.

(4) And when the time was that Elkanah offered, he gave to Peninnah his wife, and to all her sons
and her daughters, portions:

(5) But unto Hannah he gave a worthy portion; for he loved Hannah: but the LORD had shut up
her womb.

Now, notice what was happening here. Elkanah did not eat his tithes at home - he went "out of his city" yearly to worship the LORD at Shiloh. When the time came for him to OFFER, he gave portions to his family. WHY? Because he was giving them the portions to offer as well for themselves. Not only so, I've also made the point again and again that TITHES are not just merely 10%!!! Ask yourself why he gave his favourite wife a WORTHY portion? Why not just do it merely as he gave others?

When we get there, I'll be sharing the MANY verses that show that people sometimes gave above 10%, sometimes less than 10% (especially the poor). The basic thing to note is that people understood that they were to tithe - and the basic measure was 10%. But that did not mean that they MUST restrict themselves to just that 10% every single time!! Some whose heart made them willing, gave OVER 10%!! In time, Lord willing, I'll be sharing more on this - but please y'all should understand the principle that we find in the NT:

2 Cor. 8:12 -- "For if there be first a willing mind, it is accepted according to that a man hath, and not according to that he hath not."

Enigma:

2. When is the next "third year of tithing" in today's Christian calendar? Where is the "designated place" for that? Or is that designated place the same as modern "store-houses"?

I addressed this question earlier.

Enigma:

3. If the next third year of tithing comes, can a Christian going to the "designated place" then spend the money on whatever his heart desires?

Already addressed.

Enigma:

Or is it that God did not know what he was doing when he said they could spend the conversion money on whatsoever their heart desired ---- if that same liberty is not given to today's Christians?

He said they should BESTOW the tithe money. But if you're not willing t set your eyes and heart on His WORD, I've offered that you do precisely as you wish, for God does not COERCE anyone to tithe or give anything. But when you do as you please, please remember Deut. 12:8 -- "Ye shall not do after all the things that we do here this day, every man whatsoever is right in his own eyes."

Enigma:

4. What on earth has the 1 Cor 16 that you quoted (dealing with a special collection to be made on one particular occasion for suffering Christians) got to do with tithes/tithing --- unless one reads into the Bible what is not there?

If I was reading what was not there, then discard 1 Cor. 16 entirely and never refer to it for anything at all. It was not only to the Corinthians that Paul was giving his admonition about what he offered there - he also stated he had asked the Galatians to do likewise. If there's nothing in that text to help you understand the PRINCIPLES of NT giving, then please close that book and never refer to it for anything again. To do so will invite rebuttals from me that may leave you somewhat unsettled.

Regards.

Again, I will continue to keep it simple.


1. If you say "spend the money on whatever your heart desires" does not mean "spend the money on whatever your heart desires", it will be for you to explain why God did not know what He was talking about; it is not for me to explain the meaning of "bestow". And to show why that is irrelevant, deal with this question:

could the Deuteronomy 14 tither have spent or, if you like, "bestowed" the conversion money on wine or similar drink or sheep or oxen?


2. Perhaps while you are at it, you could tell us the difference between "bestow" and "spend"?

3. Maybe it is me, but I do not see where you have told us when the next third year of tithing in today's Christian calendar is. Please tell us as briefly and concisely as you can.

4. It seems to me that you are conflating several NT principles of "giving" with "tithing"; could you please outline briefly the differences/relationship between the two.

5. Specifically, is NT "giving" also only to be taken to a "designated place" or to the "store-house"?

Enigma:

Again, I will continue to keep it simple.

I've kept it as simple as can be. Detailing my persuasions from Scripture does not mean that I was being complicated.

Enigma:

1. If you say "spend the money on whatever your heart desires" does not mean "spend the money on whatever your heart desires", it will be for you to explain why God did not know what He was talking about;

I never said or hinted that "God did not know what He was talking about" - you did, and YOU should be able to explain what you mean by that!

Enigma:

it is not for me to explain the meaning of "bestow".

I didn't make it a law that you explain the meaning of BESTOW. I merely suggested that you consult your study tool and see if what I had shared with you is flawed. That's all. And do I take it that the reason you failed to do just that, is because you dread discovering the radical truth for yourself?

Enigma:

And to show why that is irrelevant, deal with this question:

could the Deuteronomy 14 tither have spent or, if you like, "bestowed" the conversion money on wine or similar drink or sheep or oxen?

There is a whole world of difference. If the tither had 'spent' the money, it would mean that he did not bestow it at all; and that would mean that he supposed that the celebration banquet was a market scene. The goods were there - everyone was called to the celebration; tithers brought their money from afar and "bestowed" the money at the celebration center where God put His name - and when the feast began, he simply went and took whatever he desired, no man hindering him.

That this is what precisely was happening is the reason why I offered you 1 Samuel 1. And if you imagine otherwise that this was not the case, I'd like for you to walk me through Scripture and show that tithers from afar did not BESTOW their money, but went straight away and 'spent' the money like the celebration center was some kind of market scene!

When you make a case for "shopping" at the celebration center, please keep in mind such text as John 2:15 & 16, and ask why Jesus reacted the way He did as we read there:

"And when he had made a scourge of small cords, he drove them all out of the temple,
and the sheep, and the oxen; and poured out the changers' money, and overthrew the tables".
"And said unto them that sold doves, Take these things hence; make not my Father's house
an house of merchandise."

If tithers brought their moneys to the celebration center (where God placed His name) and began to turn that place as a market center, why would the Lord Jesus have been wroth with them?

Enigma:

2. Perhaps while you are at it, you could tell us the difference between "bestow" and "spend"?

I just did. To have "spent" the money was to turn the celebration center to a market scene. Whereas, to BESTOW that money meant that the tither gave of his tithes and freely partook of all that he found at the center - it was a banquet, not a market! It was a FEAST, not a SHOPPING MALL!

Enigma:

3. Maybe it is me, but I do not see where you have told us when the next third year of tithing in today's Christian calendar is. Please tell us as briefly and concisely as you can.

Did the apostles so recommend a "THIRD YEAR" calendar to you? I simply want to know why you starting quoting Deuteronomy with a huge "INSTEAD", but now feel averse to the recommendations of that same book!

Enigma:

4. It seems to me that you are conflating several NT principles of "giving" with "tithing"; could you please outline briefly the differences/relationship between the two.

Hehe. . . I've done so several times, Enigma. I also asked my dear friend TV01 if there was a distinction between different types of giving - and I got no answers. Now, may I ask you why you disavow TITHES in the NT, but were sharp to quote Deuteronomy for your suggested "INSTEAD"?

Enigma:

5. Specifically, is NT "giving" also only to be taken to a "designated place" or to the "store-house"?

No. I already have offered that TITHES are not the same thing as ALMS, didn't I? Here again:

Luke 11:41 -- "But rather give alms of such things as ye have; and, behold, all things are clean unto you."

Now, do you equate ALMS to tithes? If so, are you saying that what you give in Church (if you do so - 1 Tim. 5:17-18) or in response to the Lord's ordinance (1 Cor. 9:14) is alms? Are you giving alms to elders and leaders in Church when you do?

Cheers.

Still keeping things simple, I will confine this current post to one issue only:

1. The distinction that you make between "spend" and "bestow" seems not to be known by translators/compilers of several Bible versions who see that passage as meaning to spend the conversion money. Even those who use "bestow" acknowledged that it was to be "bestowed" for whatever the tither's heart desired.

Do you not see that you are reading into "the Word" what is not there? If you think not, you will have to do much better than you have done so far (a) to show that "bestow" is different from "spend", and (b) that the tither could not "bestow" or "spend" the third year tithe for whatever his heart desired.

You also need to address, whether the tither can "spend" or "bestow" the conversion money to buy wine or similar drink, oxen or sheep ---- which are expressly stated in the passage.


See examples of the renditions of that passage below that I've taken the liberty to copy from BLB (some of them partly emphasised by me):


Available Translations and Versions for Deu 14:26

KJV - Deu 14:26 - And thou shalt bestow that money for whatsoever thy soul lusteth after, for oxen, or for sheep, or for wine, or for strong drink, or for whatsoever thy soul desireth: and thou shalt eat there before the LORD thy God, and thou shalt rejoice, thou, and thine household,


NKJV - Deu 14:26 - "And you shall spend that money for whatever your heart desires: for oxen or sheep, for wine or similar drink, for whatever your heart desires; you shall eat there before the LORD your God, and you shall rejoice, you and your household.


NLT - Deu 14:26 - When you arrive, use the money to buy anything you want-an ox, a sheep, some wine, or beer. Then feast there in the presence of the Lord your God and celebrate with your household.


NIV - Deu 14:26 -

Use the silver to buy whatever you like: cattle, sheep, wine or other fermented drink, or anything you wish. Then you and your household shall eat there in the presence of the Lord your God and rejoice.


ESV - Deu 14:26 -

“and spend the money for whatever you desire—oxen or sheep or wine or strong drink, whatever your appetite craves. And you shall eat there before the Lord your God and rejoice, you and your household.


NASB - Deu 14:26 - "You may spend the money for whatever your heart desires: for oxen, or sheep, or wine, or strong drink, or whatever your heart desires; and there you shall eat in the presence of the LORD your God and rejoice, you and your household.


RSV - Deu 14:26 - and spend the money for whatever you desire, oxen, or sheep, or wine or strong drink, whatever your appetite craves; and you shall eat there before the LORD your God and rejoice, you and your household.


ASV - Deu 14:26 - and thou shalt bestow the money for whatsoever thy soul desireth, for oxen, or for sheep, or for wine, or for strong drink, or for whatsoever thy soul asketh of thee; and thou shalt eat there before Jehovah thy God, and thou shalt rejoice, thou and thy household.


Young - Deu 14:26 - and thou hast given the money for any thing which thy soul desireth, for oxen, and for sheep, and for wine, and for strong drink, and for any thing which thy soul asketh, and thou hast eaten there before Jehovah thy God, and thou hast rejoiced, thou and thy house.

Darby - Deu 14:26 - and thou shalt give the money for whatever thy soul desireth, for oxen, or for sheep, or for wine, or for strong drink, or for whatever thy soul asketh of thee; and thou shalt eat there before Jehovah thy God, and thou shalt rejoice, thou, and thy house.


Webster - Deu 14:26 - And thou shalt bestow that money for whatever thy soul desireth, for oxen, or for sheep, or for wine, or for strong drink, or for whatever thy soul desireth: and thou shalt eat there before the LORD thy God, and thou shalt rejoice, thou, and thy household.


HNV - Deu 14:26 - and you shall bestow the money for whatever your soul desires, for oxen, or for sheep, or for wine, or for strong drink, or for whatever your soul asks of you; and you shall eat there before the LORD your God, and you shall rejoice, you and your household.

Enigma,

I saw all those translations and even more before I offered that you consult your study tools. There are a few things here that you should bear in mind.

For those who used "bestow", I don't know what they had in mind instead of using "buy", "spend", "purchase", "acquire", "procure", etc. Even if one should use any one of these words, the questions we should be asking here are these:

(a) was the word portraying a commercial idea?

If it was precisely a commercial idea - which would make it a marketing idea, then I would have to ask the translators why Jesus went directly opposite that idea in John 2:15 & 16. If the idea was a marketing/commercial one, what would have prompted the Lord Jesus Christ to react the way He did in that text?

(b) where in the NT do you find the injunction for you to do as you suggested?

I'm still waiting for that answer, Enigma. So far I've tried to consistently point you to the meaning of the texts you quoted from Deuteronomy - and up until now I'm still waiting for the answers to the cases you argued for initially; but now coming back disavowing the same texts for your persuasion.

(c) what then do you understand by the examples that point out the meaning of "bestow" that I offered in 1 Samuel 1?

If you are arguing from silence without the ability to simply compare scripture with scripture, how have you been able to illustrate your persuasion with other texts to show that the meaning of "bestow" is "purchase" - so that it makes it a market activity rather than a banquet festival? If it was a matter of "purchasing" unto oneself like one does in a shopping mall, how do you reconcile that with the fact that the Levites, widows, orphans, and other poor folks were to share in the same tithes? How do you reconcile the idea of marketing/purchasing/buying with the understanding of "sharing"?

You see, Enigma, let me share two simple principles of studying God's WORD:

(a) read to find out what it says and what it means:

"Take heed what ye hear" - Mark 4:24
"Take heed therefore how ye hear" - Luke 8:18
"Hear, and understand" - Matthew 15:10.


(b) to understand the meaning of a subject, don't just take them at surface value:

2 Pet. 1:20
"Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation."

You'd have to look at the text, compare with other texts, seek out the meaning, ask questions, read every single verse dealing with subject, seek out examples that verify your inferences, appreciate the various terms that may be used to describe the very same subject that you're studying, and then your confidence will be rock-solid anyday to defend your persuasions.

There - I've shared just one of my treasures on how to understand God's WORD. And it's simply because many people don't have the discipline to apply these principles, that's why they don't have the confidence to defend the assertions they make. Which is the same thing you've been doing again and again. And that is why I'm now stiring your mind with the easy questions I've been offering you so far.

Do you mind reconsidering the answers I already gave - and then confidently present a case that points out HOW, WHY and WHERE I've actually been reading something else that the WORD does not teach?

So, basically you cannot accept what Deuteronomy says clearly and without ambiguity; therefore you must use your own personal interpretation of the Bible?


In that case, anything you say on tithing is not worth a lot ---- since it is based on your personal idiosyncracy rather than upon a proper interpretation of what the Bible says clearly and unambiguously: i.e. as far as the tithe in Deuteronomy 14 is concerned the tither was at liberty to spend the conversion money on whatever his heart desired.

The contortions with "bestow" are pointless.

You hark on about my use of the word "instead" in my very first post on this thread; well you simply do not grasp the irony in that post and simply have not been able to deduct from composite that I do not believe that any form of tithing (whether the one in Malachi, Deuteronomy, Leviticus or elsewhere for that matter) apply to Christians. They have not applied, doctrinally, since at least 2000 years ago and, arguably, even well before! (Only misguided or fraudulent folk have sought to put its bondage on Christians --- and only from several years after the Apostolic era).

I deliberately adopted the approach of asking you questions ---- because I knew from beginning that you could not sustain any argument for tithing today from the Bible; you must resort to personal idiosyncracies and preconceptions and personal interpretations --- and that is exactly what you have done.

Otherwise, how on earth can "spend the money on whatever your heart desires" mean anything other than "spend the money on whatever your heart desires"?

Enigma:

So, basically you cannot accept what Deuteronomy says clearly and without ambiguity; therefore you must use your own personal interpretation of the Bible?

It is not my personal interpretation - and please don't try and play games with me. You know very well that what we're about here is the MEANING of the said verses you've been shlepping about endlessly - and up until now you haven't been man enough to offer HOW or WHERE I'm saying something differently from what I've shared so far.

What is the MEANING of "bestow", in that verse, Enigma? If you assume it connotes the market idea of buying and selling, please tell me WHY Jesus so radically was opposed to that idea in John 2:15-16!!!

If you care to see that many trusted translations do not convey accurately the original meanings of the text of the Bible to us, please ask and I'll offer you just 50 such verses in a matter of minutes!

When you read a text, all you need to do is seek to understand what it says, find out the meaning, and then use the Bible study tools for clarification where issues may not have been established.

If "BESTOW" (in the original text) connotes the understanding of buying and selling, let me ask you the same questions again:


     (a) why was Jesus radically opposed to that idea in John 2:15-16?

     (b) what other texts help you clarify that idea with examples (since the 1 Samuel 1 I offered has been ignored by you)

     (c) why then would it be wrong for any church today to practice the same "buying and selling" stuff with tithes and offerings?

You cannot keep marking time on the word "bestow" and keep forcing the idea of "buy" or "spend" without any other examples to illustrate the point. Until you do so, I should ask that you fix your eyes on God's WORD and show me where God ask YOU as a Christian to use Deut. 14:22-29 to suggest that you could choose to do as you pleased "INSTEAD". I simply want that verse that says you could do just that!.

Enigma:

In that case, anything you say on tithing is not worth a lot ---- since it is based on your personal idiosyncracy rather than upon a proper interpretation of what the Bible says clearly and unambiguously: i.e. as far as the tithe in Deuteronomy 14 is concerned the tither was at liberty to spend the conversion money on whatever his heart desired.

The "proper interpretation", you have failed to offer. The challenges I offered, you have declined to take them on. The questions I offered and have repeated just above, you have evaded for the umpteenth time. Tell me - who is saying what is "not worth a lot" if you've been consistently evading issues all this time?!?

Enigma:

The contortions with "bestow" are pointless.

I hear. How then do you explain 1 Samuel 1 and John 2:15 & 16? If you want to use your tithes and buy alchohol, no worries. If you read God's WORD and then suggest that you would do "INSTEAD" as you wish, no worries still. If you cannot display the discipline to go check out the meaning of those texts, still no worries again. At the end of the day, what really matters to you if you can afford to throw God's WORD behind your back?

Enigma:

You hark on about my use of the word "instead" in my very first post on this thread; well you simply do not grasp the irony in that post and simply have not been able to deduct from composite that I do not believe that any form of tithing (whether the one in Malachi, Deuteronomy, Leviticus or elsewhere for that matter) apply to Christians. They have not applied, doctrinally, since at least 2000 years ago and, arguably, even well before! (Only misguided or fraudulent folk have sought to put its bondage on Christians --- and only from several years after the Apostolic era).

I'm quite familiar with folks who whimper as you do. The one thing that often impresses me about such folks is that they can't hold themselves from castigating others who tithe - and you were being "nice" with the 'fraudulent folk' aspersion.

On the other hand, folks who assume (like you) to know it all for more than 2000 years have yet NOT been able to answer simple questions, even though every single question you offered were well addressed using nothing other than the Bible!

You see, Enigma. . the case is simpple. Do what is in your heart - "freewill give", . .  or "eat" your giving, . .  or "spend" it on alchohol or whatever else your soul desires (I read once in a chat room that someone teased that he desired to "spend" his for strip tease; another said he would "buy" porn DVDs - it was their desires). . . or pass it on to your next door neigbor, . . . or whatever else you want to do "INSTEAD", just do! Afterall, "Whiles it remained, was it not thine own? and after it was sold, was it not in thine own power?" (Acts 5:4)

But the one thing you can afford to do is be respectful enough to save your accusations at others, because by accusing others you're not helping yourself! Let me ask you this:

    (a) If NOBODY (OT r NT) ever gave tithes, would there never have been greedy folks pursuing filthy lucre?

    (b) Apart from tithe, have there not been fraudulent folks who also have problems with other types of giving?

Why is it that it is ONLY tithes that you guys can easily target for your accusations against other people?

If they never preached tithes, would yo have been happier that the same problems still existed through any other type of giving YOU offer (if you ever give anything at all)?

Why hasn't anyone accused others to be "stealing by method", "thieves", or "fraudulent folk" because you guys are happier with "free will giving"?

And if those same "fraudulent folks" have done the same thing with your own "freewill giving", would you have been here arguing endlessly that there should be NO New Testament verse for your "freewill giving". . . or that because of such things, then "freewill giving" is "religiously perverse"?!?

You guys should be searching your own hearts before you quickly accuse others.

Enigma:

I deliberately adopted the approach of asking you questions ---- because I knew from beginning that you could not sustain any argument for tithing today from the Bible; you must resort to personal idiosyncracies and preconceptions and personal interpretations --- and that is exactly what you have done.

I answered ALL you questions from SCRIPTURE. In retrospect, I don't see you having been able to hold your ground in the few questions I offerd you. Now applauding yourself on such cheap ideas does make you feel better, NO?

Enigma:

Otherwise, how on earth can "spend the money on whatever your heart desires" mean anything other than "spend the money on whatever your heart desires"?

Yep - you'd have to ask yourself why the "buying and selling" in John 2:15-16 that got Jesus overturning the tables of the money changers! Go "spend" your tithe - and when you do, pretend you have the right "interpretation", and then pretend that John 2:15-16 actually did not mean what it does.

Cheerio.

1. The meaning of "bestow" in the context is simply "spend", "use to buy"; again, no need for contortions. You only need to resort to contortions if you are not willing to confront the truth and straightforward meaning of the verse.


2. The comparison with Jesus driving out the money changers, to put it mildly to be kind to you, is grossly out of place. The money changers were not tithers; the place where they were changing money was not the same place as your so-called "designated place" or "store-house"; the money changers had not gone for a feast as in Deut 14 or as in the Shiloh example.

3. If you insist on interpreting "bestow" in your way then deal with this question: can the tither "bestow" the conversion money to buy wine or similar drink, oxen or sheep ---- which are expressly stated in the passage?

In answering, bear in mind the clear wording of Deut. 14:26 -

KJV - Deu 14:26 - And thou shalt bestow that money for whatsoever thy soul lusteth after, for oxen, or for sheep, or for wine, or for strong drink, or for whatsoever thy soul desireth: and thou shalt eat there before the LORD thy God, and thou shalt rejoice, thou, and thine household,

Enigma:

1. The meaning of "bestow" in the context is simply "spend", "use to buy"; again, no need for contortions. You only need to resort to contortions if you are not willing to confront the truth and straightforward meaning of the verse.

I'm willing to confront the truth and straightforward meaning of that verse - and that is why I was not having a "private" interpretation of that verse! If you simply want to look at that word in that verse and REFUSE to compare it with other verses, then who's running away from confronting the truth but yourself, Enigma? Please follow the principle in 1 Pet. 1:20 and compare that text with other verses, and then let me know if it connotes a market idea or something else (whatever else it may connote, seeing you really have a hard time investigating what I offered you).

Enigma:

2. The comparison with Jesus driving out the money changers, to put it mildly to be kind to you, is grossly out of place. The money changers were not tithers; the place where they were changing money was not the same place as your so-called "designated place" or "store-house"; the money changers had not gone for a feast as in Deut 14 or as in the Shiloh example.

How did the whole set up of "money changers" and "buying and selling" find its way into the worship center, Enigma?

Now, if you argue again from silence (where you can't compare texts) for Deut. 14 that the tither was to "BUY" whatever his soul desired, can you tell me who was "SELLING" stuff to him at the center of worship? Did Elkanah and his family in 1 Samuel 1 go to Shiloh YEARLY to "BUY" whatever their souls desired, Enigma? If not, where did Elkanah and his family understand that they had to go to Shiloh YEARLY for worship?

Enigma:

3. If you insist on interpreting "bestow" in your way then deal with this question: can the tither "bestow" the conversion money to buy wine or similar drink, oxen or sheep ---- which are expressly stated in the passage?

In answering, bear in mind the clear wording of Deut. 14:26 -

KJV - Deu 14:26 - And thou shalt bestow that money for whatsoever thy soul lusteth after, for oxen, or for sheep, or for wine, or for strong drink, or for whatsoever thy soul desireth: and thou shalt eat there before the LORD thy God, and thou shalt rejoice, thou, and thine household,

I know what was expressly stated in Deut. 14:26 - and where have I DENIED that it states it exactly so?

Oh YES, the tither could bestow his conversion money for whatever his soul desired.

But what have we been trying to deal out here, if it was not rather the MEANING of "bestow" in that verse?

Does it mean to "buy" - (which would no doubt connote the idea of MARKETING at the worship center). .

. . or does it mean something else (and this time, you can fill in the gaps for me since you've rejected my explanations so far).

Tell me, besides Deut. 14:26 was there any idea of BUYING and SELLING at the celebration festival of tithes elsewhere in Scripture? Any examples?

Tell me, when they took their tithes to the designated place to bestow them, how did they remember the Levites, widows, orphans, and other poor folks among them (since a tither was supposedly to "BUY" whatever he desired and eat for himself)?

Tell me, how did the tithers who "spent" their money on themselves remember the widow, orphans, etc.?

Is "spending" or "buying" stuff with your money the same thing as giving your tithes to the widows and orphans? Are you forgetting the whole body of instructions in Deuteronomy 14 and just remaining on vs. 26 alone?!?


Like I said, I've considered that verse severally; but I'll cease offering my persuasions as to its meaning and only ask questions henceforth for the next couple of entries. And I'd be enthused to read your answers to those just offered above.

Cheers.

You still need to deal clearly with a simple point:


Can the tither "bestow" the conversion money for wine or similar drink, oxen or sheep or whatever his heart desired ---- which are expressly stated in the passage?


(Note i even changed "to buy" to "for" to make it simple for you)


If the tither can "bestow" the conversion money for wine, oxen or whatever his heart desired, would he first give the conversion money to the priest; or will he himself personally "bestow" the money?

Whoever is doing the "bestowing" ---- where and when will they do the "bestowing" of money for oxen, wine, sheep or whatever the heart of the tither desired?

Enigma:

You still need to deal clearly with a simple point:


Can the tither "bestow" the conversion money for wine or similar drink, oxen or sheep or whatever his heart desired ---- which are expressly stated in the passage?


(Note i even changed "to buy" to "for" to make it simple for you)

I answered before: YES!!     [size=14pt]YES!![/size]    [size=16pt]YES!![/size]

The simple issue here is to seek what exactly is the meaning of "bestow" in that context.

Enigma:

If the tither can "bestow" the conversion money for wine, oxen or whatever his heart desired, would he first give the conversion money to the priest; or will he himself personally "bestow" the money?

The tither BESTOWS the money. Does it suggest that the priest does that for the tither - have I suggested that is the case?

Enigma:

Whoever is doing the "bestowing" ---- where and when will they do the "bestowing" of money for oxen, wine, sheep or whatever the heart of the tither desired?

                Deuteronomy 14

25 Then shalt thou turn it into money, and bind up the money in thine hand,
and shalt go unto the place which the LORD thy God shall choose:

26 And thou shalt bestow that money for whatsoever thy soul lusteth after,
for oxen, or for sheep, or for wine, or for strong drink, or for whatsoever
thy soul desireth: and thou shalt eat there before the LORD thy God, and
thou shalt rejoice, thou, and thine household,          >>>>  **(remember 1 Samuel 1?)

27 And the Levite that is within thy gates; thou shalt not forsake him; for
he hath no part nor inheritance with thee.

28 At the end of three years thou shalt bring forth all the tithe of thine increase
the same year, and shalt lay it up within thy gates:

29 And the Levite, (because he hath no part nor inheritance with thee,)
and the stranger, and the fatherless, and the widow, which are within thy gates,
shall come, and shall eat and be satisfied; that the LORD thy God may bless thee
in all the work of thine hand which thou doest.


       BESTOW - no buying or selling ( I don't read it so; if that were true, then the original wording is then meaningless).

       shalt BRING FORTH. . . shalt LAY IT UP

       then the Levites, widows, the stranger, the orphans. . . "shall come, and shall eat and be saitisfied"


Did the above help clarify issues? They "bestowed" - is it different from "bring forth. . . and LAY IT UP" in that context?

If they are far different, what about those who were near to the worship center - did they BUY and SELL also?

If they did, is that the same as LAY IT UP?

If it was the same as LAY IT UP, can you explain how they still bought?

If "LAY IT UP" (which is another way of expressing "bestow" was to mean "BUY", then please make me understand how the tithers spent their money on themselves so that others like widows and orphans still got to "come and eat"?

And if "bestow" was to "BUY" and "SELL", where was the banquet then - since it would rather be a MARKET square?

Now if it was a MARKET square indicated by "bestow", why was Jesus averse to that idea in John 2:15 & 16? How did merchandise find its way into the Temple?!? Whether it was during tithes or any other event, HOW did the idea of merchandise creep into the worship center that Jesus did not countenance?


If you have problems understanding the difference between BANQUET and MARKET, could I ask that you please help me see the verses that demonstrate in Deuteronomy 14 that it was all a matter of buying and selling (by the word "bestow"?

OK: here is the passage in slightly more detail from the NKJV; read it carefully and read my following questions carefully, then come back after re-thinking your "laying it up" and "bestow".

"But if the journey is too long for you, so that you are not able to carry the tithe, or if the place where the LORD your God chooses to put His name is too far from you, when the LORD your God has blessed you,

"then you shall exchange it for money, take the money in your hand, and go to the place which the LORD your God chooses.

"And you shall spend [or if you like "bestow"] that money for whatever your heart desires: for oxen or sheep, for wine or similar drink, for whatever your heart desires; you shall eat there before the LORD your God, and you shall rejoice, you and your household.


Here goes:

1. If they exchange the tithe for money before they even start the journey, how can they then lay the tithes up at your so-called "designated place?

2. They were to take the money in their hand to your so-called "designated place"; were they supposed to lay the money up anywhere --- whether designated place or not?

3. If they were to lay the money up, what was the procedure by which they then "bestowed" the money for oxen, wine, sheep or whatever their hearts desired?

4. Would the process of "bestowing" money for oxen, sheep, wine etc have involved "buying"? Otherwise, how did they acquire the sheep, oxen, wine etc that they "bestowed" the money for?

Enigma:

OK: here is the passage in slightly more detail from the NKJV; read it carefully and read my following questions carefully, then come back after re-thinking your "laying it up" and "bestow".

"But if the journey is too long for you, so that you are not able to carry the tithe, or if the place where the LORD your God chooses to put His name is too far from you, when the LORD your God has blessed you,

"then you shall exchange it for money, take the money in your hand, and go to the place which the LORD your God chooses.

"And you shall spend [or if you like "bestow"] that money for whatever your heart desires: for oxen or sheep, for wine or similar drink, for whatever your heart desires; you shall eat there before the LORD your God, and you shall rejoice, you and your household.

I'll not fuss it, Enigma. All I ask is that you consult your study tools and see the huge difference it makes.

- - -- -

Let me digress a little then come back to the point. The reason why I'm not one of those who parry around with any particular versions or translations is because not all such versions or translations will help you understand clearly what God's WORD says. Let me give you an example:

Can you please consult both your KJV and NKJV on Revelation 8:13 and compare with other versions (ESV, HCSB, NIV, ASV, etc)?

The KJV in that verse say this:

"And I beheld, and heard an angel flying through the midst of heaven,
saying with a loud voice, Woe, woe, woe, to the inhabiters of the earth
by reason of the other voices of the trumpet of the three angels, which
are yet to sound!"

The NKJV also uses the word "angel" in that verse.

But when you compare with other translations, you find instead the word "eagle" --

(EMTV)  - - "And I saw, and I heard an eagle flying through the midst of heaven, saying with
a loud voice, "Woe, woe, woe for those who dwell on the earth, from the remaining blasts of
the trumpet of the three angels who are to sound their trumpets!"

We both know that there is a huge difference between an "angel" and an "eagle". Now, supposing you want to stress the KJV and the NKJV and use "angel" instead of the EMTV that uses "eagle", how are we ever going to know which is the right word there ?!?

If you adhere and emphasize the KJV and the NKJV, you'd be emphasizing a fallacy. Why? For the simple reason that the correct word there is "EAGLE" and not "angel". How would I know this? From the same source I appealed that you consult - your Bible Study Tools!!!

When I checked up the word in Greek, it is  α ̓ετός - ("aetos" and it is the very word that appears in Revelation 4:7 >>

"And the first beast was like a lion, and the second beast like a calf,
and the third beast had a face as a man, and the fourth beast was like
a flying eagle."

It may surprise you to note that the KJV and NKJV use the word "eagle" in that verse instead of "angel"!!! Also, the EMTV and several other translations and versions use the word "eagle"!!!

This is why you must be careful, Enigma, when you are studying God's WORD! Never settle your thoughts on assumptions that stress only one verse with English wordings. Always go back to the text and check them up!!!

- - - - -

Back from the digression.

So you can see why I don't take the NKJV wording for Deut. 14:26 - because when you check the word there for yourself, you'll find the fallacy you've tried stressing here.

Enigma:

Here goes:

1. If they exchange the tithe for money before they even start the journey, how can they then lay the tithes up at your so-called "designated place?

Deut. 14:25 does not say it is my so-called designated place. I used that expression to point you to what the text said:

"Then shalt thou turn it into money, and bind up the money in thine hand,
and shalt go unto the place which the LORD thy God shall choose."

The designated place is what I highlighted there for you.

To answer your question:

       (a) if the place was NOT far off for the tither, he certainly would not then need to convert his tithes to money.
            The question then would be, what would he do instead - still bestow his tithe which he never changed into
            money; or rather bring forth and "LAY IT UP" as the text says?

       (b) Deut. 14:26 applies to those who were far away from the celebration center - so they could convert their
            tithes into money and go to the celebration center, where they were to bestow that money for whatever
            they desired.
            The question again: if they were never far away from the celebration center, would they be "spending" their
            tithes as yet? Where did the Bible say so?

      (c)  the meaning of "bestow" in that verse has the same inference as though he was one of those who were not
           far off - he was to arrive there and "bestow" his money for all he desired - and by bestowing it, he was sharing
           his tithes exactly as those who were not far off were LAYING UP their tithes for the widows and orphans and
           strangers.
           Question: what sense does it make that some would come to the PLACE chosen by God and then begin to BUY
           and SELL? Where did they get that idea from? If BUYING and SELLING was the sense God meant for them at
           the PLACE, why was Jesus angry to find the same merchandise at the Temple in John 2:15 & 16?!?

      (d) if "bestow" is actually denoting the idea of BUYING and SELLING, please tell me simply who were the traders
            in that text?

Enigma:

2. They were to take the money in their hand to your so-called "designated place"; were they supposed to lay the money up anywhere --- whether designated place or not?

It was not a so-called designated place - God Himself asked them to go there!!! Deuteronomy 14:25 - "go unto the place which the LORD thy God shall choose"! If you have a problem with that, simply do the one thing you have chosen to do - DO NOT GO THERE at all!!

Enigma, what sort of heart would you be manisfesting if you were a Jew but refused to see what God said plainly? How does that attitude differ from what you're displaying just now?

Does the WORD say that they were to lay it up ANYWHERE they chose?

This is why after all the answers I offer and you still are having problems with what is expressly declared, I would like for you to please explicate the verse yourself. WHO were the SELLERS when the tithers arrived at "the place which the LORD thy God shall choose"?!?

Enigma:

3. If they were to lay the money up, what was the procedure by which they then "bestowed" the money for oxen, wine, sheep or whatever their hearts desired?

I clearly enunciated HOW this was done previously. Since you don't want to see it, then please offer me what I am missing. WHO were the traders, the merchants, the sellers, the changers of money, and the tycoons at "the place which the LORD thy God shall choose" when the tithers arrived there?

Enigma:

4. Would the process of "bestowing" money for oxen, sheep, wine etc have involved "buying"? Otherwise, how did they acquire the sheep, oxen, wine etc that they "bestowed" the money for?

Lol. . . this chap is playing ludo aagainst himself!   Enigma, what did you just ask about "buying"? Who has been pushing for the idea about BUYING all along but YOU? Since I didn't push that idea, then perhaps you could be kind enough to let me know who the traders, the sellers and the merchant men were that sold those things at "the place which the LORD thy God shall choose". Could you do that for me? Thank you in advance.

So, basically again, it boils down to the fact you have no clear, direct answers to the questions: OK, again to keep it simple, let's make it just one question; I'll give you some background.


In Deuteronomy 14 that we are looking at:


The thing to "bestow" is money ----- read it carefufuly; it did not say to "bestow" tithes! What was to be "bestowed" was money.

Here is the passage: Deuteronomy 14:26

And thou shalt bestow that money for whatsoever thy soul lusteth after, for oxen, or for sheep, or for wine, or for strong drink, or for whatsoever thy soul desireth


So just one question to keep things simple:


How would the tither "bestow" that money for wine or similar drink, sheep, oxen etc?

@Enigma,

Good morning. I hope your weekend was fabulous.

It is really not surprising that you're evading the questions I offered you, even after having answered every single question you offered. I don't think that's a healthy attitude to this discussion - because I observe that it is the typical response of losers in other threads on the same subject (and various other topics) who never answer the questions offered them after their babel. I don't see how anyone who is confident of what they're talking about, would often evade simply stated questions - and I'd not like you to go down along with them in that subaltern reputation.

The discussion has grown unnecessarily long on the word "bestow"; and I do not wish to weary our readers and contributors alike any further on just this one issue. We should be moving on to other things so we can all be mutually blessed on the subject. So, I'm going to take the time to carefully explain in DETAIL what the simple word "bestow" means in its context in Deuteronomy 14:26.

@Enigma,

First, I'll answer your questions; and then make some observations as well as ask some questions of my own that I'd like you to address. Please don't evade them for the umpteenth time.

The thing to "bestow" is money ----- read it carefufuly; it did not say to "bestow" tithes! What was to be "bestowed" was money.

Indeed, I agree with you that what was to be "bestowed" was money. But please observe carefully: what they "bestowed" was their TITHES in the form of money! Read Deut. 14:22 & 23 again before you go on to verses 24-26! The emphasis is not so much on the article (money) that he "bestowed" - rather, it was more about the very thing that money represented! And there's no arguing that it represented their TITHES!! What was he "bestowing" in the first place? Was he bestowing his "stipend", "salary", or TITHES?

If, for example, you say he was bestowing his "stipend", that automatically removes it from the idea of "tithes" - and we know that was not what he was asked to do.

If, on the other hand, you say he was bestowing his "salary", then the same thing as above - he would then not be following the instruction that God had given him.

However, we know he was asked to "bestow" his tithes - which should make us think carefully. Since he was far from "the place which the LORD thy God shall choose" and could not carry his "tithes" to that place (vs. 24), he was to convert it to money, bind it in his hand, and take it to the place and then "bestow" it there! And we understand that what he would be "bestowing" is his TITHES, which had been converted to money!!


Let's suppose for a moment that the term 'bestow' actually has a contextual meaning of "BUY and SELL", or "PAY or SPEND"; would that meaning make sense if we applied those words to the question of TITHES in that passage? Consider these two things:

1. If he had a choice and could carry his tithes to the center/place, would he still be
"bestowing" his TITHES at that place, rather than "buying" or "selling" his TITHES?

2. Since he had converted his TITHES to money, was the instruction to tithers
supposing that he could then BUY other people's tithes for his personal
enjoyment and desires?

Remember two very important issues here, Enigma:

(i) what was to be taken to the center was TITHES and nothing else (Deut. 14:22 & 23).
All the stuff (corn, wine, strong drink, oil, firstlings of herds and of flocks - oxen, or sheep
- or whatsoever else) that they brought to the center/place were representing their TITHES;

(ii) there is NO verse at all that indicated the idea of "buying" and "selling" one's TITHES -
it only transforms the celebration (vs. 23) into a MARKET event!! More so, God hates the idea
of "BUYING and SELLING" in connection with worship (see John 2:15 & 16 and Acts 8:20).
The celebration ("thou shalt eat before the LORD thy God, . .that thou mayest learn to fear
the LORD thy God always" - vs 23) was NOT a "commercial" activity at all; and to suggest it so
is to lose the meaning of the celebration altogether.

That is why I offered 1 Samuel 1 as an example that demonstrates what happened at "the place which the LORD thy God shall choose" when people came to that place to hold a holy feast in worship. And I also requested that you please offer an example in your case, since you're strongly advancing a MARKET idea of the tithes in Deut. 14:26 - which up until now you haven't obliged as requested.

Now, your problem all along seems to be that some tithers who lived far from "the place which the LORD thy God shall choose" were to arrive at that place to "bestow" their money (vs. 26). What was that money representing? Was it not their tithes? When God instructed them to "turn it into money" (vs. 25, KJV), was the "it" there referring to something else; or was it not referring to the tithes in vss. 22 & 23? And if it was their tithes, did God instruct them to use that tithe to BUY the tithes of other worshippers? Who then were the merchant men and traders that sold the "tithes" of other people to these other tithers that arrived from afar? Where in that whole chapter did God establish the idea of a commercial/market activity at "the place which the LORD thy God shall choose" when the worshippers came together for that celebration?

All along, you've been rather arguing that he could "spend" his tithes to "buy" whatever he desired ('on one occasion to even spend tithe money on anything (including alcohol!)'), not so? Then I want you to do me the following:

(a) please find me a verse - any verse - that stipulates there that God had established a
MARKET center at "the place which the LORD thy God shall choose" (Deut. 14:25, since
you've a problem with the term "designated place");

(b) please find me the verses that clearly show us who were the SELLERS, the TRADERS,
the MERCHANT men, the TYCOONS, the MONEY CHANGERS, the ENTERPRENEURS, and
the RETAILERS who sold tithes to these tithers. Just who were these traders?
(and please proffer such a text in your feedback)

(c) if the concept of a MARKET system was ordained by God Himself at the center -
("the place which the LORD thy God shall choose" - for ANY reason at all during worship,
why then did Jesus show such aversion to that idea in John 2:15 & 16?

(d) does it make any sense at all to you that tithes were "bought" and "sold"?
What was the idea behind "selling" one's tithes and using your "tithes" (in the form of money)
to buy other people's "tithes"?


Deuteronomy 14 is about worshippers coming together to enjoy the tithes of the harvest as God had blessed them. Those who were near at "the place which the LORD thy God shall choose" were to LAY UP their "tithes" (not "buy" or "sell" their tithes); and those who were far away from that place were to convert their tithes into money and then "bestow" that money at the same place chosen by God. Were there TWO rules for the tithers in Israel - one rule for those close to the place, and another rule for those far from it?

The one thing given was that they all were to LAY UP their tithes so that both they and the Levites and poor folks among them could eat in God's presence and celebrate His blessings (vs. 28-29). The instruction concerning those who were far away from the center does not overrule or override the substance of the general instruction to ALL tithers! They were to LAY IT UP (not "sell" or "buy" - vs. 28), so that both they (the tithers), and the Levites, and others who were poor (widows, fatherless, strangers) could come together and eat freely in that celebration in the presence of God (vs. 29).

@Enigma,

Now, my observations:

So, basically again, it boils down to the fact you have no clear, direct answers to the questions: OK, again to keep it simple, let's make it just one question; I'll give you some background.

I appreciate the background you offered. However, I've had a long discussion on the same point over and over again. I offerd answers; proffered explanations; gave illustrations; as well as furnished reflections and contextual meanings by comparing issues with other verses for clarity (based on the principle of 2 Pet. 1:20 - no private interpretation of a verse). I left you a few simple questions, and you provided NO ANSWERS whatsoever!

Yet, you have the temerity to allege that I've "no clear, direct answers" to the questions you asked?!?

Let me guess: when you make such allegations, what were you exactly expecting me to do? Lose my confidence in the solid rock of God's WORD, and then agree with you based on your weak untennable position? I observe that TV01 has long been acrid in his responses to my posts - for the very same reason: that he had expected me to agree by default to his blind assertive denials. When I refused to do so, and rather pointed him to the WORD again and again, he went in a huff and alleged that you Enigma had called me a contortionist! I really don't see you in the sardonic garb as TV01 has dressed himself; but I'm concerned that you don't test out his costumes.

Let me remind you that once and again, the several questions you asked have been soundly answered - using nothing other than the WORD of God.

Second, isn't it funny that after you kept repeating yourself on the same issue, you could not apply yourself to your study tools to check out the contextual meaning of the word translated "bestow" on that verse Deut. 14:26? If you were so confident that the meaning of that word was to "BUY" or "SPEND" (as rendered in some translations - NIV, NKJV, NLT, ESV, etc), then why is it that up until now you have not been able to apply the true meaning of the word in that verse, but have rather been pushing the mistranslations of those versions? Nevertheless, I'll show you just WHY and HOW these versions are quite misleading.

Third, I asked YOU for examples from other verses that would help you clarify that word 'bestow'. I also asked that you show me who exactly were the traders that sold other people's tithes to these folks who arrived from afar with their tithes in the form of money. Again, I yet asked you HOW "the place which the LORD thy God shall choose" had become a MARKET center for a commercial activity; instead of a worship center for celebrating God's blessings.

All these and more questions I've asked YOU, after my having provided answers to every single question you offered. What has been your response so far? NOTHING! Absolute zilch!

It seems you just want me to say "Oh yes, that verse says we can BUY and SELL our tithes!" If I agreed with you on that, then doubtless it would mean that I'd be turning my back on God's WORD - whereas I KNOW certainly that the verse does NOT teach that at all! I'm sorry to burst your bubbles; but if truth be told, the versions that render that word in Deut. 14:26 as a commercial term ("BUY", or "SPEND", or "PAY" are misleading, to say the least. And I'll show just HOW and WHY this is the case - in my subsequent posts.

@Enigma,

In this subsequent post, I'll be delineating my detailed answers in two parts:

A First, the possible meanings of the word "BESTOW".
B Who RECEIVED the Tithes (in the form of money) from them?

This would provide for easier understanding to carry readers of this thread along and not lose them mid-way. The reason why I've taken time to DETAIL my response to your questions is because I want to cover as much grounds as can possibly be anticipated, so that we move along beyond the issue of the word "bestow" - as I could almost predict or imagine that so many people have so many other important questions on the subject.

So just one question to keep things simple:

How would the tither "bestow" that money for wine or similar drink, sheep, oxen etc?

Even though I've offered simple answers and illustrations to that same question, I'd be glad to answer it again, no worries.

It was all a matter of DISTRIBUTION and MINISTRATION. But let me expand on this for clarification.

A First, the possible meanings of the word "BESTOW".

Earlier, you offered several versions that rendered the word in that verse as:

"BUY" -- (NLT and NIV) . . . or,

"SPEND" -- (NKJV, ESV, NASB, RSV - and even the Amplified) . . .

. . .instead of a more appropriate word as others have rendered it, including:

"bestow" -- (KJV, ASV, Webster, HNV)

"given" -- (YLT)

"give" -- (Darby)

You even intimated that the distinction I made seems not to have been known by the several translators who see that word as "spend". Besides showing how weak is the NKJV as a 'translation', here's why I'm deeply persuaded that the KJV and others in that category are sound on that verse. It is only now a matter of understanding the meaning of that word "bestow" as used in the context of Deut. 14:26.

The Hebrew word in Deuteronomy 14:26 translated as "bestow" in our English Bibles is nâthan [נתן], and it is used in various contexts to mean so many things in English. Depending on the context, it could possibly include the meaning of "pay"; but the same word is translated in various other English terms, including the following diverse renderings in the KJV:

* "withdrew" - Neh. 9.29 ('withdrew the shoulder')

* "thrust" - Deut. 15:17 ('take an aul, and thrust it through his ear unto the door,')

*"liftest up" - Prov. 2:3 ('liftest up thy voice for understanding')

*  "direct" - Isa. 61:8 ('I will direct their work in truth')

* "place" - Isa. 46:13 ('I will place salvation in Zion for Israel my glory')

However, as used in Deut. 14:26, it could not mean to "pay" or "spend" or "buy" or "purchase" - and the reason is strong enough to refute the argument that it does. HOW is this so?


1. There are different Hebrew terms/words for SELL, BUY and BESTOW.

To sell [מכר - mâkar], or buy [קנה - qânâh] are not the same things as to bestow [נתן - nâthan]. These terms are quite distinct and different from one another; and the Hebrew word nâthan [נתן] which is translated as "bestow" in the KJV in Deut. 14:26 does not suggest a commercial activity in any sense in that context. We can see that even in our English Bibles, the translators did not mix them up at all. Let me offer an example in Leviticus 25:14 & 15 (KJV) --

(14) And if thou sell [מכר - mâkar] ought unto thy neighbour, or buyest [קנה - qânâh] ought of
thy neighbour's hand, ye shall not oppress one another

(15) According to the number of years after the jubilee thou shalt buy [קנה - qânâh] of thy
neighbour, and according unto the number of years of the fruits he shall sell [מכר - mâkar]
unto thee.

You can see that the words "buy" and "sell" are clearly distinct from the word "bestow", and these all do NOT mean the same thing - neither can we equate "buy" [קנה - qânâh] to "bestow" [נתן - nâthan] in Lev. 25:14 & 15.

## Question: WHY have the NLT and NIV translators used the word "buy" [קנה - qânâh] instead of an appropriate word like "bestow" [נתן - nâthan] in Deuteronomy 14:26? Are the Hebrew words nâthan [נתן] and qânâh [קנה] the same thing, Enigma?

2. To "bestow" does NOT mean to "SPEND" or "BUY".

The reason why I'm strongly persuaded that the NKJV (and several others in that category) is quite misleading is because the translators used a different word altogether - "spend" in Deut. 14:26!  Let me quote that verse again from the NKJV:

(26) "And you shall spend that money for whatever your heart desires:
for oxen or sheep, for wine or similar drink, for whatever your heart
desires; you shall eat there before the LORD your God, and you shall
rejoice, you and your household."

What is wrong here is that the translators have used a commercial term ("spend" - שׁקל - shâqal) instead of a more appropriate term as the KJV's "bestow" (נתן - nâthan)! There's a huge difference between shâqal ("spend" and nâthan ("bestow"; and one very good example for the former term is found in Isaiah 55:2 >>

(2) "Wherefore do ye spend money for that which is not bread? and your labour
for that which satisfieth not? hearken diligently unto me, and eat ye that which is
good, and let your soul delight itself in fatness."

You can see here that when the WORD refers to a commercial term in connection with money, there are no ambiguities there - and the word "spend" in the verse above is shâqal) [שׁקל], and not the one translated as "bestow" (nâthan - נתן). Hence, what is meant in Deut. 14:26 is quite a different thing from the idea that the tither was to "spend" (שׁקל - shâqal) his tithe-money. Rather, he was to "bestow" (נתן - nâthan) it at the center as other tithers would do with their raw tithes.

So, the word "bestow" in Deut. 14:26 is NOT "spend", because that verse is not speaking of a marketing/commercial idea! Even though the tither from afar had arrived with his tithe-money at the place chosen by God, he was not asked to "spend" it, but rather "bestow" it. I'll expand a bit more on the difference in meaning between both English words later on.


3. The word "bestow" in Hebrew is also used in Deut. 14:21.

To even show a stronger reason why "bestow" in Deut. 14:26 could not be pointing to a commercial idea, look again at that chapter 14. What is remarkable is that both ideas between "bestow" and "sell" have already been distinguished in verse 21!! Let's see:

(21) "Ye shall not eat of any thing that dieth of itself: thou shalt give it unto the stranger
that is in thy gates, that he may eat it; or thou mayest sell it unto an alien: for thou art an
holy people unto the LORD thy God. Thou shalt not seethe a kid in his mother's milk. "

Now in that verse 21 the word "give" (נתן - nâthan) is the very same word translated as "bestow" (נתן - nâthan) in verse 26! If you doubt that, then please consult your study tools again to confirm it. The question now is, we know that a Jew was permitted to "sell" that stuff to a foreigner; but does that same verse 21 suppose that the Jew was to "spend/pay" it unto the stranger? Does that verse mean to say: "thou shalt SPEND or PAY it unto the stranger"?!? Not at all. It simply means to "give" (i.e., "bestow" it unto the stranger as a gift!

In the same way, when you get to verse 26, the sense of "bestow" is simply to offer/present their tithe-money as a gift, and not as a legal tender for purchases made.

Now, I'm going to yet again clarify the difference between "bestow" and "spend" in the next post. But suffice to say here that the NKJV and several other translations in that category are quite misleading, in that they interpolated a commercial term ("spend" - שׁקל - shâqal) instead of an appropriate rendering ("bestow" - נתן - nâthan) in Deut. 14:26! Why is this so wrong? Because God never intended that people should "spend" their tithe-money to "buy" other people's tithes at the center of celebration!

@Enigma,

pilgrim.1:

Even though the tither from afar had arrived with his tithe-money at the place chosen by God, he was not asked to "spend" it, but rather "bestow" it. I'll expand a bit more on the difference in meaning between both English words later on.

As promised, let me share on the distinction that clarifies these nubilous English words.



So WHAT really does "BESTOW" in Deut. 14:26 mean exactly?

In English, there are other synonyms to the word "bestow" - and these include (I've used my study materials here for you):

1. accord, allow, award,
confer, contribute, donate,
give, grant

2. bequeath, endow, gift,
hand out, leave, offer,
present, will

You can locate some of these possible meanings/synonyms online in WORDWeb, which offers the following:

Verb: bestow  bi'stow
1. Present
"bestow an honour on someone"
- confer

2. Give as a gift

3. Bestow a quality on
- lend, impart, contribute, add, bring
Derived forms: bestowed, bestows, bestowing

Also check out the possible meanings offered in YOUR Dictionary.com:

* To present as a gift or an honor; confer
* To place or stow
* To store or house

Synonyms
* To make a gift of: give (away), hand out, present
* To present as a gift to a charity or cause: contribute, donate, give, hand out
* To give formally or officially: accord, award, confer, grant, present

What is interesting to note is that, contextually, NOT in one instance is the word "bestow" indicative of "BUY,SELL, SPENT or PAY" - and the several words which could help clarify this thought for us have been highlighted above and I'll reproduce them below:

to: confer, contribute, donate, give, bequeath, gift, hand out, offer
to: present, give as a gift.

Enigma, it was for this simple reason that I asked that you consult your study tools and find out the meaning of the word "bestow" in that verse (Deut. 14:26) - because it was not used as a MARKET term there; but rather as a term for fellowship and worship - "to present/give as a gift"!!!  This is why the NKJV and the others got it all WRONG by suggesting it meant to "SPEND" or "BUY"! They probably were going along with the mention of "money" in that verse, but were not careful enough to understand the bigger picture - which was, that the money represented TITHES, and NOT legal tender for purchased goods!! I've shown earlier HOW and WHY we have to be careful about translations - specially so as in the case with the NKJV!

I hope this is now clear, that the word in Deut. 14:26 translated as "bestow" in our English Bibles does NOT suggest a commercial or MARKET term at all. It simply means that tithers came to "the place which the LORD thy God shall choose" and bestowed ('presented/gave/offered') their TITHES there as a gift! It was a GIFT that they presented/gave so that:

"the Levite, (because he hath no part nor inheritance with thee,) and the stranger,
and the fatherless, and the widow, which are within thy gates, shall come,
and shall eat and be satisfied; that the LORD thy God may bless thee in all the work
of thine hand which thou doest" -- vs. 29.

There is no idea there about a MARKET activity where tithers from afar were to "purchase/buy/spend" their own tithes to procure other people's tithes to lavish on themselves!

IT WAS A FEAST, NOT A GRAND SHOPPING MALL!!